C
captainmike
Guest
there was a thread on this the other day. somebody made the point that the line about jesus saving mary was anti-catholic because it didn’t take into account that she had already been immaculately conceived (and thus was no longer in need of being saved). two points, though:
- through the immaculate conception, the benefits of christ’s death on the cross was applied to mary at the moment of her conception. however, he still had to die (or else there was nothing to apply to her). thus, it’s not completely inaccurate to say that he would save her (via his death), right?
- second, although she was conceived immaculately, she was still capable of committing sin. thus, she, like us, needed god’s grace (supplied by jesus’ death on the cross and the eucharist) to keep from sinning in the future. again, therefore, his death on the cross did save her, right?