Mary "Full of Grace"?

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Mary - “Full of Grace?”

In the following e-mail exchange, the e-mailer’s comments are in black and enclosed in “greater than” and “lesser than” signs. A former RC’s comments are in red. I looked this up because of my Protestant Girlfriends mother who also questioned this. Can someone help me with this? Thanks Much.
Hi Gary,
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I am trying to understand a RCC position on Mary - “full of grace.” They claim this is biblical evidence of her sinlessness and the Immaculate Conception.

I searched all the version of the Bible shown in the Bible Gateway, and most state “highly favored.”

I noticed that your ALT states:

1:28 And having come in, the angel said to her, “Greetings, [one] having been bestowed grace [or, shown kindness]! The Lord [is] with you. You have been blessed among women.” [cp. Eph 1:6]

Can you please give me some insight on this passage, and the Greek relationship/translation here?

I appreciate it!

Theresa (a former RC)
9/22/2000<

Greek word is a perfect, passive participle. The passive indicates the action is done to the subject. And when the active party is not specified, as here, it generally is a “divine passive” meaning God is the active Subject.

So the verse is saying Mary was bestowed or received grace from God. The point is, she is the recipient; she does not have grace to give to others as Catholicism would have it. The Greek word can also mean “favor” or “kindness,” so any of these translations would be appropriate.

The cross reference in my version is because Eph 1:6 is the only other place this verb occurs in the NT. The verse reads:

1:6 to [the] praise of the glory [or, splendor] of His grace [or, of His glorious grace], by which He bestowed grace upon [or, showed kindness to] us in the Beloved,

Note, that the same grace that was given to Mary is given to all believers. So there is nothing “special” about Mary’s grace.

I hope that all helps.
 
First, lets look at what the Church actually teaches about the Immaculate Conception:

“The Most Holy Virgin Mary was, in the first moment of her conception, by a unique gift of grace and privilege of Almighty God and in view of the merits of Jesus Christ the Redeemer of mankind, preserved free from all stain of original sin.”

Pope Pius IX, Ineffabilis Deus (1854)

Notice that the Church does not teach that Mary was not in need of a Redeemer. The grace given to her was “in view of the merits of Jesus Christ”. She was merely redeemed in a different way.

An analogy would be someone walking in the woods. If they fell into a pit and then you helped them out of it you would be that person’s savior. However, if you stopped them from ever falling into that pit you would still be their savior. It is just in a different, and more perfect way because you preserved them from falling.

Scripturally, we should probably first look at the Old Testament to see to see a propecy of the Immaculate Conception:

“I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your seed and her seed; he shall bruise your head, and you shall bruise his heel.”
Genesis 3:15

This passage is referred to as the “First Gospel” because it is an obvious prediction of the coming of a savior to crush the head of sin and death. Jesus is obviously the seed of the woman and that would make the woman Mary. God tells Satan that he will put enmity, or total opposition between him and Mary. The woman cannot be Eve because she has already embraced Satan in disobeying God. Mary’s response to God, however, was “let it be done to me according to your word.” (Luke 1:38)

And now concerning the passage in Luke:

And he came to her and said, “Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you.”
Luke 1:28 RSV

It is by no means only Catholics who recognize this as the more correct translation. The Protestant Amplified Bible published by Zondervan, the publishers of the NIV, contains it as well.

And he came to her and said, Hail, O favored one [endued with grace]! The Lord is with you!
Luke 1:28 Amplified Bible

A footnote announces that the bracketed text is actually the literal translation.

And a good place to look for more info on kecharitomene, the greek word behind “full of grace” is
catholic.com/library/Immaculate_Conception_and_Assum.asp

James
 
The translation “Highly favored daughter” is not a wrong translation. It is merely of lower quality than that of “Hail full of grace.” A literal translation that is in between the two might read, “The one that has been graced.” The issue is “when was Mary given this grace and what is the quality of that grace.”

The comparison to Eph 1:6 probably proves more than your protestant friends are willing to admit. While the same verb is used, it is not used in exactly the same way. In Mary’s case, the meaning is as a title or name and is quite individual. In the case of Eph 1:6 it is a collective statement of the grace of baptism and faith as it is applied to all Christians. Mary had this grace without being baptized. She was somehow saved ahead of this and even in anticipation of Christ’s redemptive work on the cross . Your protestant friend’s quotations of the two verses even show this difference because they don’t translate in exactly the same way.

To understand the teaching of the immaculate conception we need to know all of the scriptural references, both direct and indirect, and we need to appreciate them in the entirety of scripture and Jewish culture. God gave the commandment to the Jews to “Honor your father and your mother.” The Hebrew word for honor means to both honor and glorify. Jesus being the son of God, the second person of the Trinity, would honor and glorify his mother.

Even more importantly we must remember that nothing unclean enters heaven. So it would seem most fitting that Mary would have to have been conceived without original sin in order to carry Jesus as her son in her womb. Eve was born without original sin yet she brought sin into the world. Mary brought salvation[Jesus] into the world. Who is greater…Eve or Mary? And remind your friends of Luke 1:48 where it says “…Surely, from now on all generations will call me blessed;” Notice how this applies to Mary but does not apply to Eve.

continued on my next post:
 
continued from previous post:

You might also want to read 2 Sam 6:2-16 and Luke 1:49-56 and notice all the parallels between Mary and the Ark of the covenant. I have a nice little file on this that I can email you if you want it. Anyway, consider how carefully crafted the Ark of the Covenant was and, therefore, how carefully crafted Mary would have been. In the book of Jer 1:5 we see these words “Before I formed you in the womb I knew you, and before you were born I consecrated you;…” Or consider Psalm 139:13-15 “for it was you who formed my inward parts; you knit me together in my mother’s womb. I praise you, for I am fearfully and wonderfully made. Wonderful are your works.” Now if these verses apply to those other than the Blessed Virgin Mary, than imagine how much more they would apply to her. She is the mother of God, Jesus. It is only right and fitting that she be saved from original sin at the moment of her conception.

It is helpful to craft your response to your friends in terms of the beauty and love of God and His divine plan. When all is said and done, we know which understanding is more in keeping with that love and beauty. And remember the verse Luke1:37 where Mary is told, “For nothing will be impossible with God.”

A possible retort from your friends may involve an attack on our understanding of baptism per my comment on the quote from Ephesians. You need to be prepared to show them that baptism is regenerative. I also have a Word file containing all the NT verses pertaining to baptism which I can send to you if you need it.
 
Also, if anyone objects to associating Mary with the woman of Geneses 3:15 then you may want to point out to them that Jesus and John seemed to make the connection.

And Jesus said to her, “O woman, what have you to do with me? My hour has not yet come.”
John 2:4

When Jesus saw his mother, and the disciple whom he loved standing near, he said to his mother, “Woman, behold your son!”
John 19:26

And a great portent appeared in heaven, a woman clothed with the sun, with the moon under her feet, and on her head a crown of twelve stars; she was with child and she cried out in her pangs of birth, in anguish for delivery…And the dragon stood before the woman who was about to bear a child, that he might devour her child when she brought it forth; she brought forth a male child, one who is to rule all the nations with a rod of iron…
Revelation 12:1-2,4-5

James
 
“Hail! Full of Grace,” is the best and most accurate translation of the Greek,(Douey Rheims, Ignatius Bible) but our beloved New American Bible says, “Highly favored daughter”…Why they used this Protestant friendly interpretation, I don’t know, its not accurate, maybe they wanted to water down this teaching. But you can’t.

How can Mary be Full of Grace when Jesus hadn’t even been conceived yet! All grace actual and Sanctifying (and we are refering to Her as being filled with Sanctifying grace, that’s the context), Was poured out upon us at the time of Christ’s Redemptive act on the Cross. The world was devoid of grace from Adam and Eve until Jesus’s death. Then how can Mary be full of Grace! This is the beginning of the Marian doctrine of the Immaculate Conception.

Jesus had to pre-sanctify her. Becasue He was still her savior, but applied the grace of redemption to her prior to His birth.

Thanks
 
There was an excellant article on this in Envoy, but I don’t seem to see it online at www.envoymagazine.com; they seem to be a little behind. It was a basic lesson in Greek and what was written in the original text. I’ll try to remember to get the issue number and the article name when I get home…

John
 
It would probably also be helpful to point out that Catholics and Protestants define grace differently. Protestants see it as solely an attribute of God, his favor. Catholics see it as a transferable quality, something which God gives to people which renews their souls and sanctifies them.
 
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Hananiah:
It would probably also be helpful to point out that Catholics and Protestants define grace differently. Protestants see it as solely an attribute of God, his favor. Catholics see it as a transferable quality, something which God gives to people which renews their souls and sanctifies them.
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Yes, that’s a key point. Catholics see grace as a real created sharing of Gods life, enabling us to become sanctified. As I understand the Protestant position, they see humanity as incapable of sanctification: we can only be saved because Jesus “covers up” our sin. The Father looks at us and sees Jesus, rather than the still sinful and unsanctified human person.

I think this may be a reason for the objection to Purgatory as well. They see no need for sanctification, as God will take us in just as we are, solely because Jesus has paid the price of our sins. But Catholics believe that “nothing unclean can enter Heaven,” thus the need for true sanctification.

JimG
 
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yochumjy:
There was an excellant article on this in Envoy, but I don’t seem to see it online at www.envoymagazine.com; they seem to be a little behind. It was a basic lesson in Greek and what was written in the original text. I’ll try to remember to get the issue number and the article name when I get home…
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The Envoy magazine does not have the article on line. For those that are interested, it is volumn 7.3. I’m sending an email to Tim Staples to see if he has it online somewhere.

John
 
Buckeyejoe said:
“Hail! Full of Grace,” is the best and most accurate translation of the Greek,(Douey Rheims, Ignatius Bible) but our beloved New American Bible says, “Highly favored daughter”…Why they used this Protestant friendly interpretation, I don’t know, its not accurate, maybe they wanted to water down this teaching. But you can’t.

How can Mary be Full of Grace when Jesus hadn’t even been conceived yet! All grace actual and Sanctifying (and we are refering to Her as being filled with Sanctifying grace, that’s the context), Was poured out upon us at the time of Christ’s Redemptive act on the Cross. The world was devoid of grace from Adam and Eve until Jesus’s death. Then how can Mary be full of Grace! This is the beginning of the Marian doctrine of the Immaculate Conception.

Jesus had to pre-sanctify her. Becasue He was still her savior, but applied the grace of redemption to her prior to His birth.

Thanks
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Good Day Buckeyejoe

The “Highly favored” is not a watered down “Protestant friendly”. I believe that Raymond Brown in his book about Mary in 1978 addresses this issue. Seeing that he was the premirer Scholar of latin and greek and biblical history in Rome. His correction on this issue is now seen as the standard in all material used with reguards to this issue for the forseeable furture. With in the halls of higher learning with in the Vatican, and will contuine on.

Peace to u,

Bill
 
go Leafs go:
The point is, she is the recipient; she does not have grace to give to others as Catholicism would have it.
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I would also note that the above-highlighted statement is false. I.e., Catholicism wouldn’t “have it” it that way. The Catholic position is that she is a recipient of grace, as are all human beings.
 
bbas 64:
Good Day Buckeyejoe

The “Highly favored” is not a watered down “Protestant friendly”. I believe that Raymond Brown in his book about Mary in 1978 addresses this issue. Seeing that he was the premirer Scholar of latin and greek and biblical history in Rome. His correction on this issue is now seen as the standard in all material used with reguards to this issue for the forseeable furture. With in the halls of higher learning with in the Vatican, and will contuine on.

Peace to u,

Bill
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Bill,

Highly favored is NOT the best translation, (I don’t care what Ray Brown says) The Greek word in question is “kecharitomene” , now if we check Catholic Answers tract, they say “Full of Grace” is best translation.

Another expert Catholic Apologist, Thomas Sheehan, Cleveland Diocese, in one of his tapes dated 1990, (and this is before Catholic Answers website) explains, kecharitomene is best translated, Full of Grace., (The Greek could be translated, showing kindness, to be blessed, shown favor and these the Protestants obviously choose).

Also: The Latin Vulgate from 400AD-1500AD uses Full of Grace, The Duay Rheims from 1500-Vatican II uses Full of Grace.

The Greek word never changed, so why this great revelation in the 1970’s changing it to be Protestant friendly?

Also: The Catcheism of the Catholic Chrch uses the translation RSV-CE (Ignatius Bible) which also says, Hail full of Grace!

Thanks
 
Thanks Pax, I was just having this discussion or heated discussion on Mary last night with some protestant friends. I just forwarded them your artical. I can’t use nothing but scriptor with them so Luke 1:48 should sew it up, but I know it wont. I get tired of getting beat down by them, but I’m learning a lot thanks, George 👍
 
go Leafs go said:
****

So the verse is saying Mary was bestowed or received grace from God. The point is, she is the recipient; she does not have grace to give to others as Catholicism would have it. The Greek word can also mean “favor” or “kindness,” so any of these translations would be appropriate.

I hope that all helps.
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Your friend hasn’t taken the time to found out what Catholicism really teaches. Catholics believe that this passage refers to Mary being the recipient as well. Ask him why he says things that aren’t really true.
 
There pretty hardcore so I’ll probably lost friends, I hope not. My wife says I shouldn’t argue about it. I said I’m not argueing about it I’m protecting my faith. I get tired of hearing everything I do is wrong. It might be wrong in there eyes but not mine. George
 
Here is a similar exhange I had with someone on another forum. He did not like “full of grace in Luke 1:28 and said “lets take a look” citing all the other"hightlyfavored” etc. translations which i have ediited for brevity. His challenege is in italics. My response is in bold.

*“Let’s look at Luke 1:28” and Ephesians 1: 6

The angel went to her and said, “Greetings, you who are highly favored! The Lord is with you.”
Luke 1:28 (NIV)

And what is grace but God’s favor freely bestowed? Highly favored, full of grace, perfected in grace. The Greek work is in the perfect tense participle, “kecharitomene”.

”All of these versions use the word “favored” or “highly favored.” The exact Greek word is used in one other place in the New Testament. Does it refer to Mary? No. Jesus? Nope. Then to whom does it refer? Let’s take a look: “

“To the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us accepted in the beloved.”
–Ephesians 1:6 (KJV)

So the word is translated “freely bestowed,” “blessed,” or “made accepted” in these three translations. However, you translate it, the exact word used to describe Mary (which you say implies her sinlessness) is used to describe ALL CHRISTIANS. So either all Christians have no sin or your argument deflates.*

**Yes, let’s take a closer look.

This is not the “exact Greek word” in both verses. In Ephesians 1: 6 it is “echaritosen” the aorist tense indicative form of an action brought to pass, grace bestowed on us. Greek is a much more precise language than English. The Greek word used for full of grace is “kecharitome”, a perfect passive participle indicating “one (she) who has been perfected in grace,” a past action that is ongoing. Fullness of grace is incompatible with sin.However there is a perfect participle in Ephesians 1:6.It is the “beloved” referring to Jesus. No comparison to us and him. We are aorist tense, He is perfect tense./

“to the praise of the glory of His grace, which He freely bestowed on us in the Beloved.”
–Ephesians 1:6 (NASB**)
 
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