Mary's Perpetual Virginity

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Faith1960

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What leads us Catholics believe in Mary’s perpetual virginity when it’s said in Matthew 1:24-25 (New International Version):
“When Joseph woke up, he did what the angel of the Lord had commanded him and took Mary home as his wife. 25But he had no union with her until she gave birth to a son. And he gave him the name Jesus.”

Doesn’t that make it rather clear that Mary and Joseph had sexual relations?

Also, why is there a reference (s) to Jesus’ brother if Mary remained a virgin? :confused:
 
For the same reason that Catholics teach that Michal did not have any children after she died: “Michal the daughter of Saul had no children till the day of her death” (2 Sam. 6:23).

In ancient Israel, “til” or “until” describes the past and the present, but is completely silent about the future. Don’t apply today’s language rules to words written 2000 years ago under a different set of rules. That can lead to false assumptions and beliefs.
 
Also, why is there a reference (s) to Jesus’ brother if Mary remained a virgin? :confused:
It means any male family member, including cousins. Notice that no other person in the bible is ever referred to as “Mary’s son”, but only as “Jesus’ brother”.

But the key point is that if Mary had other sons, then Jesus would never have separated His mother from her other children and sent her to live with a non-related man, John. And yet that’s exactly what He did on the cross. To force His own mother out of the house of her other son(s) would have been to cause her great sorrow. It would have been to dishonor her. If Mary had other sons, then Jesus dishonored her from the cross by sending her out of their home to live in the home of an unrelated man. Jesus would have been breaking a commandment.

Furthermore, the sons would simply not have allowed it. Even in our day and age, if an older brother died and told his mother to go live with an unrelated man, the younger brothers would simply prohibit it. How much more would they have prohibited it back then?! Just imagine in the Middle East today if a widowed mother tried to leave the house of her sons and go live in the house of an unrelated man! It would have been, and still would be, quite inconceivable and impossible.
 
What leads us Catholics
Not just Catholics, but Orthodox…
believe in Mary’s perpetual virginity when it’s said in Matthew 1:24-25 (New International Version):
“When Joseph woke up, he did what the angel of the Lord had commanded him and took Mary home as his wife. 25 But he had no union with her until she gave birth to a son. And he gave him the name Jesus.”
Don’t rely too much on up-beat Protestant versions. It may mean that he shared a bed.
Also, why is there a reference (s) to Jesus’ brother if Mary remained a virgin?
Brother is also a term for close kin.

When Jesus was on the Cross He gave His mother over to the care of John. If Jesus had any ‘real’ brothers (children from a common mother; Mary) then she would have been there responsibility.

See also
orthodoxinfo.com/general/evervirgin.htm
 
It means any male family member, including cousins. Notice that no other person in the bible is ever referred to as “Mary’s son”, but only as “Jesus’ brother”.

But the key point is that if Mary had other sons, then Jesus would never have separated His mother from her other children and sent her to live with a non-related man, John. And yet that’s exactly what He did on the cross. To force His own mother out of the house of her other son(s) would have been to cause her great sorrow. It would have been to dishonor her. If Mary had other sons, then Jesus dishonored her from the cross by sending her out of their home to live in the home of an unrelated man. Jesus would have been breaking a commandment.

Furthermore, the sons would simply not have allowed it. Even in our day and age, if an older brother died and told his mother to go live with an unrelated man, the younger brothers would simply prohibit it. How much more would they have prohibited it back then?! Just imagine in the Middle East today if a widowed mother tried to leave the house of her sons and go live in the house of an unrelated man! It would have been, and still would be, quite inconceivable and impossible.
That makes a lot of sense. In those days (heck, even in 2006) Mary living with a male relative would’ve been scandalous and as you said, impossible. Add to that, Mary’s reputation as Jesus’ mother and that would probably make it even more impossible.
 
There are other similar threads. Look around.

Also, check out the Catholic Encyclopedia at
www.newadvent.org.

Well, I looked there myself, and couldn’t find anything, right away. But, you might look around there anyway.
 
That makes a lot of sense. In those days (heck, even in 2006) Mary living with a male relative would’ve been scandalous and as you said, impossible. Add to that, Mary’s reputation as Jesus’ mother and that would probably make it even more impossible.
I think you meant “unrelated male” rather than “male relative” 🙂

And yes, Jesus putting His mother in a scandalous situation would have been a further dishonoring of her, which again would have made Jesus a sinner.

I have seen some unconvincing answers to this by Protestants. One is that when Jesus rose the brothers would have known He was God, or would have been too afraid of Him to object. The fatal flaw with this argument is that Mary went to live with John “from that hour”, meaning directly from the foot of the cross. She didn’t wait until Jesus resurrected. And that would have given the brothers three days at least to prevent her, or fetch her back. But scripture says she lived with John “from that hour” (until the end of her life). So, no brothers.

The other argument I have seen for Mary going to live with John is that Jesus’ brothers were not believers at that time, although these same Protestants concede that those “brothers” became believers later. So according to this Protestant argument, Jesus separated His mother for the rest of her life from living with her own other sons, even though those other sons later became believing Christians!!! That would have been the height of injustice!

On top of all that, even if the brothers never became believers, since when is that a just reason for separating a mother from her children? Is this Christian teaching, that a widowed mother who has unbelieving children is not to live with them, but to live with a believing, unrelated male? No, it is certainly not Christian teaching. And yet, if it were true, and if it were good enough for Christ, why don’t we do it?

Because it never happened. 🙂
 
I think you meant “unrelated male” rather than “male relative” 🙂
Yes, sorry, although, wouldn’t it have also been scandalous if a woman lived with a male relative other than her husband or male children?
 
Yes, sorry, although, wouldn’t it have also been scandalous if a woman lived with a male relative other than her husband or male children?
Probably not, especially if it was her brother, her father, her uncles, or her nephews 🙂

Jeremy
 
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