Since as Roman Catholics we believe Mary was conceived without Original Sin, and had no personal sin, does the Church also teach that Mary didn’t have a desire to sin? or, because she was part of a fallen world, she also inherited a desire to sin, but, by the grace of God, was withheld from giving into temptation?
According to Catholic dogma, Mary was preserved free from the
stain of original sin: concupiscence of the flesh, concupiscence of the eyes, darkness of thoughts, and the pride of life. Thus she had no inclination and desire to sin. If Mary had ever felt any aversion towards God by momentarily preferring, even for an instant, anything other than God in the created order to the extent of potentially denying His will and rejecting His love, then she would have been an unworthy mother of our Lord. Mary neither sinned against God nor felt inclined to offend Him. God created her so that she would be preserved free from the grip of unruly passions and pride. Her position with God in no way thwarts the Divine Justice, since no human being is personally culpable of the sin of Adam.
“My soul proclaims the greatness of the Lord.”
Luke 1, 46
“Thou alone and thy Mother are in all things fair; there is no stain in thee and no stain in thy Mother.”
Ephraem (A.D. 370)
“As he formed her without any stain of her own, so He proceeded from her contracting no stain.”
Proclus of Constantinople (ante A.D. 446)
“A virgin, innocent, spotless, free of all defect, untouched, unsullied, holy in soul and body, like a lily sprouting among thorns.”
Theodotus of Ancrya (ante A.D. 446)
“She is born like the cherubim, she who is of a pure immaculate clay.”
Theoteknos of Livias (ante A.D. 650)
PAX :heaven: