Mathew 5:32-?

[Qoeleth]

The Greek word normally translated as "adultery’’ could be referring to incestuous or other dysfunctional relations, which would then permit divorce.

Remember, Matthew is most strongly Jewish. According to such an understanding, if a woman was unfaithful to a man, she has broken the marriage "contract’’ and therefore the man has no obligation to house and feed her.

 

[Link0126]

Protestants can basically believe almost anything they want b/c it’s all based on their own interpretation. So there may not be a very good explanation for this particular person.

 

[Big_Dummy]

Have you considered one caught in adultry was put to death? Thus the person doing the adultry would be dead and thus the marriage would be dissolved by death.

 

[TimothyH]

Have you considered one caught in adultry was put to death? Thus the person doing the adultry would be dead and thus the marriage would be dissolved by death.

I had not considered this and quite frankly, when I read it, I raised my eyebrows a bit and strugged to reason my way out of the logical box you have created.

It is a provacative statement and yet I believe an insightful observation, I’ll give you that while I reserve the right to ponder your observation at greater length.

Your comment belies your screen name.

-Tim-

 

[EmRose87]

Again, thank you so much for all your thoughts and responses!