TheWhodackKid:
I’m having a little trouble picturing the scene of Matthew 12:46-50 in my head. I fully believe that the early Church Fathers and the Catholic Church proclaim a Truth of our Lord by believing that Mary was an ever-virgin, however, I have yet to come to terms with this passage.
I have read most of the tracts on
www.catholic.com regarding the Greek roots of the word “brothers” and “cousins” and all that jazz. But what I really need is someone to tell me who the “brothers” of the Lord were in this passage, before Christ turns to His disciples and says “Here are my mother and my brothers.” Were these first “brothers” talked about the step-brothers/cousins of our Lord? Or, other disciples?
Anyone?
If I may, I’d like to offer my (name removed by moderator)ut to your question. Generally speaking, anything you can confirm in the Holy Bible can be considered fact
(at least IMHO).
To believe that Mary was a virgin when she bore Jesus is certainly scriptural* (Isaiah 7:14, Matthew 1:23, Luke 1:27-35) *so there are no doubts there. As for Jesus’
“mother and brothers,” there really isn’t any scripture to state exactly how Jesus came to have brothers and sisters
(other than just knowing that He had them), but the most logical conclusion would be that Mary and Joseph simply exercised their marriage right to bear children AFTER Jesus was born.
I have to almost laugh when I see the heated debate that transpires at the very thought of Mary engaging in normal and healthy marital activity with her husband. Many feel this insanely strong need to believe that Mary remained a virgin throughout her lifetime, even though I’ve yet to see anything in the Bible to back that up. What’s funny is that it’s really irrelevant whether Mary remained a virgin or not after Jesus. What was important was that she was a virgin when she bore Jesus, which she absolutely was.
We know that Jesus had a brother
(Matthew 10:2, 17:1, Mark 1:19, etc). Plus, we know from Mark 6:3 that Jesus not only had brothers, but even SISTERS! Though I’m sure it’s possible that Joseph could have had these children before meeting Mary, it just seems less plausible to me that a woman such as Mary who found favor with the Lord
(Luke 1:30) would marry a man who had children with another woman and/or was married to another woman beforehand. So, it’s far more likely that Mary bore children after Jesus. I’m, of course, happy to listen to anybody who has scriptural proof to the contrary, but so far, I haven’t seen any such evidence.
Regardless, I wouldn’t worry too much about Matthew 12:46-50. Mary needed to be a virgin at the time that Jesus was conceived… and she was. She is certainly a strong example of the good that comes from obedience to the Lord our God. With regards to family, Jesus preached that we should always respect our fellow brethren, blood-tied or otherwise, but that obedience to the Lord must take precedence* (see Matthew 10:35-37 as an example). *
I hope this helps. May God bless you as you read the Holy Scriptures for understanding. Always ask God to guide you in your understanding.