Matthew 15:24

[Heartfelt]

"He answered, “I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel.”

I have a question about this scripture, it actually continues on, as we all know, to talk about scraps from the table, feeding to the dogs, etc etc. My point is…when I read this, I can’t help but see it that Jesus was very strictly pointing out he was only there for the “lost sheep of Israel”. Why would he not care about anyone else automatically? Why did the Canaanite woman have to beg to be heard, especially when she was demon possessed? It seems to contradict the message of the Bible, that Jesus came for all of us, Jew & Gentile alike, that the lost were his favorites,etc etc.

If anyone could help clear this up. I have heard a Protestant tell me this was an issue about predestination?!!! I’m entirely confused.

 

[Daniel_Marsh]

Jesus did help the woman because of her faith in him.

The Jewish people had the prophecy concerning the messiah, not the gentiles.

Jesus mission was to Isreal, only after his resurrection and the middle of the book of Acts was it opened up to gentiles too.

The nations are to be blessed through Isreal.

 

[fineca]

I recommend Roy Schoemann’s book “Salvation is from the Jews” by Ignatius press - it should more than answer you.

However I have another related question. When Jesus finally said in Mt 28:18-20 that we are to make disciples of all nations etc, which is usually taken as a command to take the Gospel to the gentiles too, ALL nations, did he actually mean that? If he did, why didn’t the apostles go to all nations but waited for years and years having only Jewish members in the Christian community? A friend told me that the original word, since there were two kinds of nations, nationes and gentes, the Jewish nations/tribes and Gentile ones, referred only to the Jewish people and not to all people. Thus we’d actually have no basis from Jesus himself to think that the gospel is meant for the gentiles. We have to rely on Peter’s revelation. Is it true, who knows these language issues?

 

[DRIVING_BEAR]

Short answer gentiles are grafted into Israel see the following verses

Rom 11:17 But if some of the branches were broken off, and thou, being a wild olive, wast grafted in among them, and didst become partaker with them of the root of the fatness of the olive tree;

Rom 11:24 For if thou wast cut out of that which is by nature a wild olive tree, and wast grafted contrary to nature into a good olive tree; how much more shall these, which are the natural branches, be grafted into their own olive tree?

 

[Heartfelt]

I recommend Roy Schoemann’s book “Salvation is from the Jews” by Ignatius press - it should more than answer you.

However I have another related question. When Jesus finally said in Mt 28:18-20 that we are to make disciples of all nations etc, which is usually taken as a command to take the Gospel to the gentiles too, ALL nations, did he actually mean that? If he did, why didn’t the apostles go to all nations but waited for years and years having only Jewish members in the Christian community? A friend told me that the original word, since there were two kinds of nations, nationes and gentes, the Jewish nations/tribes and Gentile ones, referred only to the Jewish people and not to all people. Thus we’d actually have no basis from Jesus himself to think that the gospel is meant for the gentiles. We have to rely on Peter’s revelation. Is it true, who knows these language issues?

 

[Heartfelt]

OOPS!! Fineca, I was trying to reply to your comment. I too have wondered the same thing. I do have firm faith and belief that we are all part of the chosen people through Abraham, but I do find the analysis of the scriptures interesting. It is just an interesting thing to throw out there and ask on. Now, faith covers over all, so I am not truly worried about not being a Jew and not being chosen by God. But I trust everyone realizes I just am interested in what all of you have to say regarding this scripture.Thank you all for your (name removed by moderator)ut and various scriptures. ps: if anyone knows how to put a quote and reply at the same time, please message me! hahaha. I was also interested in the various interpretations, especially the Protestant view of Predestination that was gleaned from that line of scripture. As a Catholic now predominately around Protestants, I often find myself on the bridge between groups and like to hear from others, both Catholic and Protestant alike, how they view these scripture hot beds. Thank you!

 

[mdgspencer]

There is a proper time for many things. At Cana in John 2when his mother asked him to deal with the situation of a lack of wine for the wedding guests, he said his time has not come. So first he devoted himself to the people of God, Israel in his day, though afterwards he sent his apostles to all nations.

 

[fineca]

but did he send them to all nations? read my post above - could some language expert tell us if he sent them to the jewish tribes or the gentiles?

 

[Nita]

ps: if anyone knows how to put a quote and reply at the same time, please message me! hahaha. I was also interested in the various interpretations, especially the Protestant view of Predestination that was gleaned from that line of scripture. As a Catholic now predominately around Protestants, I often find myself on the bridge between groups and like to hear from others, both Catholic and Protestant alike, how they view these scripture hot beds. Thank you!

I had the same problem when I first started!
To do what I just did here: I clicked on the little “quote” box at the bottom of your message. Your post then appeared in the “Reply to Thread” window. I deleted the portion of your message I wasn’t responding to, dropped down a line and started typing.

The other way is to copy a portion from another post (or any source) and paste it onto your reply thread. Then, highlight the post and go up to the tool bar. There is an icon, looks like a comic strip conversation box (right under the “redo” arrow) that says"Wrap QUOTE tags around selected texts". Click on that.

Nita

 

[davidv]

However I have another related question. When Jesus finally said in Mt 28:18-20 that we are to make disciples of all nations etc, which is usually taken as a command to take the Gospel to the gentiles too, ALL nations, did he actually mean that? If he did, why didn’t the apostles go to all nations but waited for years and years having only Jewish members in the Christian community? A friend told me that the original word, since there were two kinds of nations, nationes and gentes, the Jewish nations/tribes and Gentile ones, referred only to the Jewish people and not to all people. Thus we’d actually have no basis from Jesus himself to think that the gospel is meant for the gentiles. We have to rely on Peter’s revelation. Is it true, who knows these language issues?

I believe the answer to this is in John 1:8:“But you will receive power when the holy Spirit comes upon you, and you will be my witnesses in Jerusalem, throughout Judea and Samaria, and to the ends of the earth.”
This shows a progression of teaching that starts in Jerusalem, extends to the rest of Judea and Samaria, then to the ends of the earth. This can also be seen in the Acts of the Apostles,. Peter teaches in Jerusalem them Samaria. Then Paul begins his teaching further afield.