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The beautiful words of Jesus in the Gospel of Matthew 24:35 are often translated:
“Heaven and earth will pass away, but my words will not pass away.”
Now, to be sure, I always assumed that what is meant is something more like “the heavens (the created cosmos)… will pass away” and several translations do make this clear.
So, then, why do so many translations still use the super-confusing word “Heaven”? He couldn’t possibly be saying that the eternal realm of the Trinity will ever pass away…
It seems like there are sooooo many sticking points like this in even our best modern translations. What’s an honest reader to do?
Is there a good website where I can plug in a verse and the original Greek pops up and I can check the real meaning of each word or something without sorting through a long transcript of a sermon or homily?
Don’t even get me started with the prophecy in Isaiah: was it “young woman” or “virgin”? And of course, if it was “young woman”, then what precedent would the Jews of Jesus’ time have had for expecting the messiah’s virgin birth? Don’t get me wrong, I know that Luke makes Mary’s virginity clear: I’m asking more about precedence for belief.
“Heaven and earth will pass away, but my words will not pass away.”
Now, to be sure, I always assumed that what is meant is something more like “the heavens (the created cosmos)… will pass away” and several translations do make this clear.
So, then, why do so many translations still use the super-confusing word “Heaven”? He couldn’t possibly be saying that the eternal realm of the Trinity will ever pass away…
It seems like there are sooooo many sticking points like this in even our best modern translations. What’s an honest reader to do?
Is there a good website where I can plug in a verse and the original Greek pops up and I can check the real meaning of each word or something without sorting through a long transcript of a sermon or homily?
Don’t even get me started with the prophecy in Isaiah: was it “young woman” or “virgin”? And of course, if it was “young woman”, then what precedent would the Jews of Jesus’ time have had for expecting the messiah’s virgin birth? Don’t get me wrong, I know that Luke makes Mary’s virginity clear: I’m asking more about precedence for belief.