Matthew 5:32 and 19:9

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Matthew 5:32
But I say to you that every one who divorces his wife, except on the ground of unchastity, makes her an adulteress; and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery.

Matthew 19:9
And I say to you: whoever divorces his wife, except for unchastity, and marries another, commits adultery; and he who marries a divorced woman, commits adultery.”

These two verses have been the grounds for legitimizing non Catholic Christian divorce and remarriage when a spouse commits adultery. But is this really what Jesus (or Matthew) was saying?

I would like to examine the greek language expressed by Matthew in these verses to try and understand them better.

First, in Chapter 5 vs 32, the greek translation says “… outside” “of case” “of prostitution…”
(RSV-CE except on the ground of unchastity)

This makes more sense if we see that Jesus didnt mean adultery in a marriage is grounds for divorce, but a carnal relationship itself which can be divorced!

And in Matthew 19:9 the greek is slightly different, but also is better understood in the same way.

“… if no… on prostitution…”
(RSV-CE except for unchastity)
 
You see, the arguement always seems to be that the term “porneia” includes adultery. But if we look at the context, Jesus is not really saying that infidelity by a spouse with someone other than their spouse is what can legitimize dissolving a Christian marriage, but that a couple joined through porneia is what can actually be divorced from!
 
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