W
wolfhunter
Guest
Why did Jesus tell the blind men that he healed not to tell anyone? Because he is God wouldn’t he know that they would tell? Why even tell them in the first place. I am very confused over this verse.
Great question Scott, my answer is NOT in line with the majority, although not proclaimed as a doctrine, most Catholic (and protestors as well) think Gods’ omniscience” means that God is beyond time, that He knows everything that will happen. I, personally have a problem with that idea, it’s not Scriptural, God on several occasions shows, anger, sadness, remorse, and surprise at things occurring. He indeed has a plan, He knows He can insure His plan is accomplished since He gives each of us the grace needed for our little piece of His plan, that does NOT mean He knows EVERY word we will speak, nor every action we will take. Read Scripture carefully, He know when every bird of the sky falls, 0.K., but does that mean He knows prior to it happening? Or that He knows “when” it happens, big difference.Couldn’t that question be extended to include: Why did God tell Adam & Eve not to eat the fruit? Didn’t He know that they would?
Scott
I think it is because Jesus healed people out of compassion, from his infinite love. It was not intended to “make people believe” and in the case of the blind men they professed their belief in Him before they were healed.Why did Jesus tell the blind men that he healed not to tell anyone? Because he is God wouldn’t he know that they would tell? Why even tell them in the first place. I am very confused over this verse.