I would agree that it seems very unlikely to me, as a Jew, that the event played out the way Matthew says it did.
Yes. But now we are talking about something very different from what Christians traditionally view this verse and it doesn’t explain why the verse is translated as it is in Matthew.
Is there anything in the NT that suggests that the Pharasees, or other Jews, were ever told about a virgin birth while Jesus lived?
Also, had the translation in Matthew been correct, then it seems the Pharasees would have indeed have asked themselves “How could David cal his son master.” Remember, these people were masters of the scripture. If 110:1 was written the way Matthew states it was written, these questions would have arisen long before the arrival of Jesus.
