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thinkandmull
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Does the Son of His existence ontologically to God the Father? Where has the Church taught on this specifically?
Thank!
Thank!
From The Greek And Latin Traditions Regarding The Procession Of The Holy Spirit of the Pontificial Council for Promoting Christian Unity (1995)Does the Son of His existence ontologically to God the Father? Where has the Church taught on this specifically?
Thank!
Book IV of Contra Gentiles, also Book I (natural reason). Also in Commentary on the Sentences. Another is in the treatise on the Trinity (De rationibus fedei) in the Compendium of Theology. Another is the Disputed Questions (De potentia) – the last four of ten. Of them all I think this has the best detail, and it was written before the Summa.Thanks.
Would you happen to know where Aquinas speaks of the Trinity besides the Summa? I think in the Contra Gentiles as well. Are these the only two?
An internal procession is not an event in time. There is a communication. The Trinity in three Persons which are not independent. The eternal relations are the persons.Wouldn’t we say that the Personhood the Son came from nothing? Or can a consciousness split into two philosophically speaking?
I was wondering if you also knew anything about the Chaldean reconciliation that happened with Rome under John Paul II with regard to the issue of nature vs personhood.
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I don’t know so much, but am good at research, but I do study often.I don’t like how that decree say the Son was “indissolubly united” united to His humanity though
No, it was understood as a linguistic misunderstanding by both sides, due to cultural and socio-political differences.It was God’s decision to united Jesus’s humanity and divinity forever. The union of humanity and divinity to not metaphysically entail that they cannot latter be divided by the ceasing of the humanity’s existence.
I thought it interesting also in the article on the Assyrian Church that it said “for the most part” the issue was based on misunderstanding. Does this imply that the Assyrian Church has abandoned some of its historical position. The decree does not go into detail
The classic theological terminology of “indissolubly united” is employed by Catholics as well:The article Vico gave said it was MOSTLY a misunderstanding
The Most Holy Trinity is simple. There is just one essential divine will. “Jesus had a divine will and a human will.” God is unlike creatures because the persons are not independent.Dear Vico, and anyone else who wants to chime in,
If three humans have an experience, they share the experiences but there are through “feelings” going on. I know in the Trinity there are Three Consciousness, there seems to be disagreement on whether there is three wills and reason (perhaps its mute), but are there three “feelings” of love and all, or just one. Is it possible for there just to be one?
The Trinity is one God because there but one divine nature or divine substance. The Son and Holy Spirit possess the same identical divine nature or substance as the Father. The Son has the divine nature from the Father and the Holy Spirit from both the Father and the Son. The Father has but one intellect and will. There is but one power of intellect and will in the Trinity which all three persons possess. Consequently, there are not three intellects or three wills in the Trinity as if there are three Gods.Dear Vico, and anyone else who wants to chime in,
If three humans have an experience, they share the experiences but there are through “feelings” going on. I know in the Trinity there are Three Consciousness, there seems to be disagreement on whether there is three wills and reason (perhaps its mute), but are there three “feelings” of love and all, or just one. Is it possible for there just to be one?
There is ever only one divine will spoken of.Has this been defined? Someone on the Apologetics forum was saying the opposite recently