Moral Permissibility of Tactile Foreplay in Marriage

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godisgoodd1

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Is tactile foreplay initiated by one’s wife okay as long as we culminate our expression of love within the marital act? I just want to make sure if it’s a sin or not. Thanks.
 
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I find your question confusing. By “tactile foreplay”, you presumably mean “foreplay involving touch” (from the Latin tango, “I touch”). What other kind of foreplay would there be? Purely mental stimulation?
 
godisgoodd1 said:
A handj** from my wife. I’m just wondering if it’s a sin or not.
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Um. That is something different entirely.

Please talk to your priest about morality of sexual acts. The term you are using is rather vulgar. This isn’t the place for graphic discussions. What you describe above isn’t foreplay.
 
I’m still confused. The act you describe in your deleted posts typically means that the act reaches its culmination, as you put it, in the woman’s hand(s). But in your original post you say it would “culminate … in the marital act”. If your question is, “Is my wife allowed to touch my penis before intercourse?”, the answer is yes.

Note: I have tried to use the most neutral language possible. The deleted posts used a more colloquial term that probably doesn’t belong here.
 
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It’s fine if your wife stimulates you if it’s something that is leading to intercourse. If it replaces intercourse, not so much.

As long as you, the man, orgasm via vaginal intercourse, other activities between the spouses that are mutually enjoyable in the time leading up to that are fine.
 
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