Morality

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Pete_1

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Is their a difference between immorality and sinfulness, can an act be immoral without being sinfull?
 
Short answer, no.

An act can be lawful (such as abortion) and still be both immoral and a grevious sin.
 
What if the act commited is only slightly immoral and does not qualify as a sin? Is this possible?

Or is it a case of ‘all wrong doing is sin’ can their be actions that are immoral, but do not count at wrongdoing or sin?

For example buying products from China, this is considered immoral by some, but is it considered a sin?
 
What if the act commited is only slightly immoral and does not qualify as a sin? Is this possible?

Or is it a case of ‘all wrong doing is sin’ can their be actions that are immoral, but do not count at wrongdoing or sin?

For example buying products from China, this is considered immoral by some, but is it considered a sin?
On what basis do you distinguish between immoral and sinful?
 
Is their a difference between immorality and sinfulness, can an act be immoral without being sinfull?
an act can be objectively immoral, the person committing the act may not be subjectively guilty of sin, if the other two conditions for sin are not present: full knowledge and full free will consent. It is important, as often as we make this distinction here, to further remind ourselves that the evil consequences of the act, which are inherent in the act itself and part of what makes the act immoral, follow whether or not the person committing the act is subjectively guilty of sin, or whether his guilt is mitigated by circumstances.

In today’s society unfortunately there are hosts of people who simple do not know because they have been wrongly taught that sex outside marriage is objectively gravely immoral on many levels. They cannot be said to be completely guilty of sin on this account. However the evils that ensue from these actions, committed on such a global scale, are wreaking havoc on individuals, relationships, families and society as a whole.

the distinction between “immoral” and “sinful” lies in describing the act objectively, its components, its inherent evils and damage vs. the circumstances, who is doing the act, and with what level of knowledge and what ability to consent, or even to judge competently. A child or teen forced into sexual activity and being told by the adults involved that what is going on is good and permissible, is not sinning because he has been denied the truthful information to make such a judgement, and because his consent has been taken away.
 
What if the act commited is only slightly immoral and does not qualify as a sin? Is this possible?

Or is it a case of ‘all wrong doing is sin’ can their be actions that are immoral, but do not count at wrongdoing or sin?

For example buying products from China, this is considered immoral by some, but is it considered a sin?
“Some” don’t determine what is right or wrong – nowhere in the Gospels does Jesus say, “Y’all get together and vote on whatcha think is right and wrong, okay?”
 
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