D
DailyBread
Guest
Okay fix:
First:
I believe arguing about the means in this case is moot point because the means are the same in both semenal analysis case and the case to prevent the spread of herpes. Both are acting in the exact same manner; having intercourse while using a perforated condom so either both are right according to the means or both are wrong, it cannot be either or.
I agree completely on your analogy about the virus is pathological and the pregnancy is not, but I fail to see why that discounts my arguement. In both cases the pregnancy or virus is placing the spouse’s health at risk and both do not wish or intend for that situation. Is it morally wrong for a person to stay with a contagious and sick friend who places her at risk? Actions that place us at risk of disease are not in themselves immoral unless one intends to make the other sick. Finally, genital herpes is not fatal typically (as in it almost never happens, i agree there are health risks, but like you said its up to the couple to decide). I agree that this approach is not 100% effective in preventing spread, but again same with the NFP case.
On the point that the cases are not identical, so explain to me why it is morally acceptable to do a medical analysis but not to prevent the spread of disease (a medical application)? What is immoral about the ends of “preventing spread of disease” while medical test “analyzing fertility” is morally acceptable use of perforated condoms (again the MEANS are the same so please analyze the ENDS I just stated). The perforated condom is designed so you are not preventing sperm from entering the vaginal canal (in other words, people can still get pregnant using a perforated condom so it cannot be considered contraceptive). If you do not believe this to be the case, then please state that you believe that its medical application for testing fertility is wrong because again, the MEANS are the same.
So again to restate: what is morally wrong with preventing the spread of disease and morally right with medical testing.
First:
I believe arguing about the means in this case is moot point because the means are the same in both semenal analysis case and the case to prevent the spread of herpes. Both are acting in the exact same manner; having intercourse while using a perforated condom so either both are right according to the means or both are wrong, it cannot be either or.
I agree completely on your analogy about the virus is pathological and the pregnancy is not, but I fail to see why that discounts my arguement. In both cases the pregnancy or virus is placing the spouse’s health at risk and both do not wish or intend for that situation. Is it morally wrong for a person to stay with a contagious and sick friend who places her at risk? Actions that place us at risk of disease are not in themselves immoral unless one intends to make the other sick. Finally, genital herpes is not fatal typically (as in it almost never happens, i agree there are health risks, but like you said its up to the couple to decide). I agree that this approach is not 100% effective in preventing spread, but again same with the NFP case.
On the point that the cases are not identical, so explain to me why it is morally acceptable to do a medical analysis but not to prevent the spread of disease (a medical application)? What is immoral about the ends of “preventing spread of disease” while medical test “analyzing fertility” is morally acceptable use of perforated condoms (again the MEANS are the same so please analyze the ENDS I just stated). The perforated condom is designed so you are not preventing sperm from entering the vaginal canal (in other words, people can still get pregnant using a perforated condom so it cannot be considered contraceptive). If you do not believe this to be the case, then please state that you believe that its medical application for testing fertility is wrong because again, the MEANS are the same.
So again to restate: what is morally wrong with preventing the spread of disease and morally right with medical testing.