Mormons I have a question...

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Hello all LDS people on this site I have a question.

Why would Jesus build two churches?
And why would Jesus build two churches just to have both of them fail?

3 Nephi 11:39:

“Verily, verily, I say unto you, that this is my doctrine, and whoso buildeth upon this buildeth upon my rock, and the gates of hell shall not prevail against them.”

Matthew 16:8
“And I say also unto thee, That thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church; and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it.”

Also, why would Jesus give two people Authority, if now there is only one Prophet?

If Jesus originally gave two people that Authority, shouldn’t there be two Prophets?
 
Hello all LDS people on this site I have a question.

Why would Jesus build two churches?
And why would Jesus build two churches just to have both of them fail?

3 Nephi 11:39:

“Verily, verily, I say unto you, that this is my doctrine, and whoso buildeth upon this buildeth upon my rock, and the gates of hell shall not prevail against them.”

Matthew 16:8
“And I say also unto thee, That thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church; and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it.”

Also, why would Jesus give two people Authority, if now there is only one Prophet?

If Jesus originally gave two people that Authority, shouldn’t there be two Prophets?
There is an active thread on how Mormons interpret the “gates of hell” passage. You might read that to get an idea.
 
I’m new (as you can clearly see by my post count.) I’ve been lurking and something about your question prompted me to register. I have no idea why.

Anyway, on to your question. I’m a life long member of the LDS faith.

In the LDS belief, the two scriptures you quoted happened very close together time wise. LDS believe that after Jesus’ death and resurrection, He came to the Americas to teach and minister to those living here. Jesus comes to the Americas in 3rd Nephi.

The churches He established were the same church, however because they did not have any means of communication between the areas at the time, he set up 2 different leaders. It’s not like St. Peter could get on a plane and come over and say hi. So at that time, there was more than one prophet. Now, with the advanced communications, this is not a need. Even back when the LDS church was founded, with printing presses, and missionaries on established shipping routes between the US and England, the message could be spread. Not with the ease of today, but still possible versus the impossibility of this happening during the time of Christ.

The church that Christ established here in the Americas was removed because of the wickedness of the people here. There’s another thread going on about what happened in Jerusalem/the old world/etc. I’ll leave that topic to people who’ve been here much longer than me
 
I’m new (as you can clearly see by my post count.) I’ve been lurking and something about your question prompted me to register. I have no idea why.

Anyway, on to your question. I’m a life long member of the LDS faith.

In the LDS belief, the two scriptures you quoted happened very close together time wise. LDS believe that after Jesus’ death and resurrection, He came to the Americas to teach and minister to those living here. Jesus comes to the Americas in 3rd Nephi.

The churches He established were the same church, however because they did not have any means of communication between the areas at the time, he set up 2 different leaders. It’s not like St. Peter could get on a plane and come over and say hi. So at that time, there was more than one prophet. Now, with the advanced communications, this is not a need. Even back when the LDS church was founded, with printing presses, and missionaries on established shipping routes between the US and England, the message could be spread. Not with the ease of today, but still possible versus the impossibility of this happening during the time of Christ.

The church that Christ established here in the Americas was removed because of the wickedness of the people here. There’s another thread going on about what happened in Jerusalem/the old world/etc. I’ll leave that topic to people who’ve been here much longer than me
Assuming this is true…

You realize the Roman Catholic Church was founded nearly 2000 years ago, so in over 1,800 years, there was NO communication to the America’s? I highly doubt that.

Also, say it IS true what you said. LDS started in the 1830’s. What happened to the rest of the 1830 years?

Since your church did not have any successful successions of authority, shouldn’t they oblige to the current authority of the Catholic Church?

Just a thought…
 
I’m new (as you can clearly see by my post count.) I’ve been lurking and something about your question prompted me to register. I have no idea why.

Anyway, on to your question. I’m a life long member of the LDS faith.

In the LDS belief, the two scriptures you quoted happened very close together time wise. LDS believe that after Jesus’ death and resurrection, He came to the Americas to teach and minister to those living here. Jesus comes to the Americas in 3rd Nephi.

The churches He established were the same church, however because they did not have any means of communication between the areas at the time, he set up 2 different leaders. It’s not like St. Peter could get on a plane and come over and say hi. So at that time, there was more than one prophet. Now, with the advanced communications, this is not a need. Even back when the LDS church was founded, with printing presses, and missionaries on established shipping routes between the US and England, the message could be spread. Not with the ease of today, but still possible versus the impossibility of this happening during the time of Christ.

The church that Christ established here in the Americas was removed because of the wickedness of the people here. There’s another thread going on about what happened in Jerusalem/the old world/etc. I’ll leave that topic to people who’ve been here much longer than me
If Jesus Christ establish his church in the Americas, then why was his “phrophet” not able to stop the Natives from performing human sacrificies and the Catholic Spaniards did?
 
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