C
Curious_Hobbit
Guest
Hello, I have a question about the bible and slavery. I get the impression that the mosaic kind of slavery is much different then Roman slavery and Egyptian slavery. The Jews didn’t despise labor so slaves weren’t a thing of contempt or of lower class necessarily. The masters had to care for their servants, give them compensation (of some form), feed them, and the servant was to be released after a while. I know that many people would willingly take on masters when they were having financial trouble. It seems like paid labor wasn’t very common back then, you would either fend for yourself or you would go work for someone and be something like an indentured servant.
If a man beats his male or female slave with a rod and the slave dies as a direct result, he must be punished- exodus 12:20
At the end of every seven-year period you (slave) shall have a relaxation of debts- Deut. 15
If you buy a Hebrew slave, he shall serve for six years; but on the seventh he shall go out as a free man without payment. -Exodus 21:2
Anyone who stole a man and put him to slavery (Ex 21 v16) was to be put to death. There were various laws dealing with physical abuse of slaves (Ex 21 v20 & 26). If an Israelite fell upon hard times they could offer to work for someone else who would in turn look after them (Lev 25 v39). If a thief was caught and could not make restitution then they were to be sold for the theft (Ex 22: v3).
I am the LORD your God, who brought you out of Egypt, out of the land of slavery- Exodus 20:2
If God rescued the Jews from Egyptian slavery, then it would seem strange that he allows them to enslave each other. So the Mosaic slavery must have been of a different kind if It is seen as a good thing that the Jews were rescued from Egyptian slavery by God.
My question is this right here
'Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves"- Leviticus 25:44
Why were the Jews allowed to buy slaves from foreign lands? Is my understanding of the Mosaic slavery correct? I am in a discussion with someone and they raised this point.
Thanks!
P.S. Also, weren’t the old Jewish laws only for that specific group of people in that specific time?
If a man beats his male or female slave with a rod and the slave dies as a direct result, he must be punished- exodus 12:20
At the end of every seven-year period you (slave) shall have a relaxation of debts- Deut. 15
If you buy a Hebrew slave, he shall serve for six years; but on the seventh he shall go out as a free man without payment. -Exodus 21:2
Anyone who stole a man and put him to slavery (Ex 21 v16) was to be put to death. There were various laws dealing with physical abuse of slaves (Ex 21 v20 & 26). If an Israelite fell upon hard times they could offer to work for someone else who would in turn look after them (Lev 25 v39). If a thief was caught and could not make restitution then they were to be sold for the theft (Ex 22: v3).
I am the LORD your God, who brought you out of Egypt, out of the land of slavery- Exodus 20:2
If God rescued the Jews from Egyptian slavery, then it would seem strange that he allows them to enslave each other. So the Mosaic slavery must have been of a different kind if It is seen as a good thing that the Jews were rescued from Egyptian slavery by God.
My question is this right here
'Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves"- Leviticus 25:44
Why were the Jews allowed to buy slaves from foreign lands? Is my understanding of the Mosaic slavery correct? I am in a discussion with someone and they raised this point.
Thanks!
P.S. Also, weren’t the old Jewish laws only for that specific group of people in that specific time?