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MysticMissMisty
Guest
Salvete, omnes.
(Yes, I did briefly touch on this subject on another thread I just posted, but, since the main topic of that thread was somewhat different, I thought I’d “re-post” the latter part of my questions here so that we might get into more deep discussion specifically on this topic on this thread.)
What I am about to ask comes from the perspective of a 31-year-old women who has no desire–and has no desire to have desire–for sexual contact (what some might consider “asexual” in “orientation”). Understand that she (I) am not celibate, therefore, because it is any “sacrifice” of mine or because I feel some religious “vocation” toward such a single and celibate life; my desire simply does not exist. Without getting into here whether so-called “asexuality” is disordered or legitimate, can a woman or man who wishes to live a single life merely because he/she has no desire for sex and/or children be living out God’s will? Is not wanting sex/children too “selfish” a reason not to bear children, as there is really no directly religious component to this lack of desire? Is there not something in Catholic teaching that man should be “inclined to life” or something like that? Could the non-religious desire to not have sex/children of which I speak not be compared equivalently even to aborting a child, if such desire results in the omission of having children? If not, why would these not be equivalent?
For some time, I have considered my own state to be more one of personal preference, like those who do not like this food but like that one, rather than as something I would impose on another person. Of course, I consider sexuality a gift from God, just not one that every single person might desire. I therefore do not consider myself in any way morally “superior” to anyone else who desires sexual things. Would singleness based on whatever degree of lack of desire for sex/kids/etc., rather than on any religious devotion, be legitimate in God’s eyes? Why or why not?
That said, if you consider “asexuality” legitimate, could this not be some way of God rather “choosing your calling to singleness for you” for whatever reasons He might have?
Please note here that my question does not so much concern my own particular condition of “asexuality”, but, rather, an situation where someone simply wishes to be single for non-religious reasons. Let’s try to keep the subject focused on this greater generality. “Asexuality” can and indeed has been discussed on other threads more specifically addressing it.
Gratias.
(Yes, I did briefly touch on this subject on another thread I just posted, but, since the main topic of that thread was somewhat different, I thought I’d “re-post” the latter part of my questions here so that we might get into more deep discussion specifically on this topic on this thread.)
What I am about to ask comes from the perspective of a 31-year-old women who has no desire–and has no desire to have desire–for sexual contact (what some might consider “asexual” in “orientation”). Understand that she (I) am not celibate, therefore, because it is any “sacrifice” of mine or because I feel some religious “vocation” toward such a single and celibate life; my desire simply does not exist. Without getting into here whether so-called “asexuality” is disordered or legitimate, can a woman or man who wishes to live a single life merely because he/she has no desire for sex and/or children be living out God’s will? Is not wanting sex/children too “selfish” a reason not to bear children, as there is really no directly religious component to this lack of desire? Is there not something in Catholic teaching that man should be “inclined to life” or something like that? Could the non-religious desire to not have sex/children of which I speak not be compared equivalently even to aborting a child, if such desire results in the omission of having children? If not, why would these not be equivalent?
For some time, I have considered my own state to be more one of personal preference, like those who do not like this food but like that one, rather than as something I would impose on another person. Of course, I consider sexuality a gift from God, just not one that every single person might desire. I therefore do not consider myself in any way morally “superior” to anyone else who desires sexual things. Would singleness based on whatever degree of lack of desire for sex/kids/etc., rather than on any religious devotion, be legitimate in God’s eyes? Why or why not?
That said, if you consider “asexuality” legitimate, could this not be some way of God rather “choosing your calling to singleness for you” for whatever reasons He might have?
Please note here that my question does not so much concern my own particular condition of “asexuality”, but, rather, an situation where someone simply wishes to be single for non-religious reasons. Let’s try to keep the subject focused on this greater generality. “Asexuality” can and indeed has been discussed on other threads more specifically addressing it.
Gratias.
