C
christus_vincit
Guest
I know this is a question which has been addressed multiple times, but I have not been able to find a clear answer:
During the Agony in the Garden Jesus says: “My Father, if it be possible, let this chalice pass from me. Nevertheless not as I will, but as you will.”
I would like to present to you how I understand this. I would ask that you please correct me where I am wrong and explain to me why. I would like to have a working understanding of what was going on in this prayer of Christ to his Father.
My understanding: Jesus, being true God and true man, possesses both a divine and human will. In the garden on the night before he suffers and dies, he is in a state of mental, physical, and spiritual torment as he anticipates the unspeakable pain he will endure the next day. Deep in prayer, he asks his Father three times “if it is possible, let this chalice pass from me, but not as I will, but as you will”. He has a human nature, so he fears the impending horrors that his Passion will entail (“his sweat was as drops of blood”). In his human will he asks his Father if there is any other possible way that the redemption of mankind may be achieved, but also asserts his unwavering obedience to the will of his Father. Because he is the perfection of humanity, his human will could never have been in opposition to his divine will, which he shares with his Father. So, even though he appears to desire to find another less extreme/painful means of achieving our redemption, he is always fully obedient to his Fathers will. Why then does Jesus in his humanity (even though he fully consents to whatever is set before him) make it appear as if he desires something that might be conflicting with the divine will? Obviously there is a crucial element here which I am missing.
During the Agony in the Garden Jesus says: “My Father, if it be possible, let this chalice pass from me. Nevertheless not as I will, but as you will.”
I would like to present to you how I understand this. I would ask that you please correct me where I am wrong and explain to me why. I would like to have a working understanding of what was going on in this prayer of Christ to his Father.
My understanding: Jesus, being true God and true man, possesses both a divine and human will. In the garden on the night before he suffers and dies, he is in a state of mental, physical, and spiritual torment as he anticipates the unspeakable pain he will endure the next day. Deep in prayer, he asks his Father three times “if it is possible, let this chalice pass from me, but not as I will, but as you will”. He has a human nature, so he fears the impending horrors that his Passion will entail (“his sweat was as drops of blood”). In his human will he asks his Father if there is any other possible way that the redemption of mankind may be achieved, but also asserts his unwavering obedience to the will of his Father. Because he is the perfection of humanity, his human will could never have been in opposition to his divine will, which he shares with his Father. So, even though he appears to desire to find another less extreme/painful means of achieving our redemption, he is always fully obedient to his Fathers will. Why then does Jesus in his humanity (even though he fully consents to whatever is set before him) make it appear as if he desires something that might be conflicting with the divine will? Obviously there is a crucial element here which I am missing.