T
tony-nj
Guest
Because this is unusual, I won’t try to tell the entire “story” of it, but just specific facts. My question is does this look to be eligible for a simple “Documentation case” annulment. The order of the facts tell the timeline:
Person A was born and baptized Catholic.
Person B was born but not baptized.
Person A and B were married in a Protestant Church with no dispensation.
Years later, Person A received the sacraments of first communion and confirmation on the same day.
Two years after that, Person B received the sacraments of baptism, first communion and confirmation on the same day.
After that, the priest told them that they needed to have their marriage blessed by the Church. Person B refuses stating they do not need anyone to tell them that they are already married. Person A asks Person B many times to have their marriage blessed at least for Person A’s sake because Person A wants to obey the priest. Person B completely refuses.
Years later, they divorce.
Now, after many hours of searching the web, I have not come across this particular scenario. I’ve asked this of a person who advertises as specializing in canon law, and they did not know. I have an appointment with my local priest to get the ball rolling on the annulment process. His initial reaction was that he wanted our Deacon to sit in because the Deacon has much more experience in the annulment process (we have a young priest).
In the scenarios that I have seen, the answer given is that after the non baptized spouse comes into the Church and receives their sacraments, the marriage is retroactively made valid and sacramental. However, in this case, the spouse explicitly refuses to have the Church bless the marriage. Not out of ignorance, but clearly defiant. I know this sounds crazy, because who would do something like that? But it’s a true scenario. I suppose the “conversion” was just a CYA in case Hell does exist. Needless to say, Person B was a Christmas and Easter only mass attendee.
So, who would like to make a prediction as to how this will go? Open and shut “Documentation case”?
Person A was born and baptized Catholic.
Person B was born but not baptized.
Person A and B were married in a Protestant Church with no dispensation.
Years later, Person A received the sacraments of first communion and confirmation on the same day.
Two years after that, Person B received the sacraments of baptism, first communion and confirmation on the same day.
After that, the priest told them that they needed to have their marriage blessed by the Church. Person B refuses stating they do not need anyone to tell them that they are already married. Person A asks Person B many times to have their marriage blessed at least for Person A’s sake because Person A wants to obey the priest. Person B completely refuses.
Years later, they divorce.
Now, after many hours of searching the web, I have not come across this particular scenario. I’ve asked this of a person who advertises as specializing in canon law, and they did not know. I have an appointment with my local priest to get the ball rolling on the annulment process. His initial reaction was that he wanted our Deacon to sit in because the Deacon has much more experience in the annulment process (we have a young priest).
In the scenarios that I have seen, the answer given is that after the non baptized spouse comes into the Church and receives their sacraments, the marriage is retroactively made valid and sacramental. However, in this case, the spouse explicitly refuses to have the Church bless the marriage. Not out of ignorance, but clearly defiant. I know this sounds crazy, because who would do something like that? But it’s a true scenario. I suppose the “conversion” was just a CYA in case Hell does exist. Needless to say, Person B was a Christmas and Easter only mass attendee.
So, who would like to make a prediction as to how this will go? Open and shut “Documentation case”?
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