Nothing beyond what is written

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Not being extremely well educated in early Church history, but reading from Paul’s letters to the Corinthians, I am wondering what written material was used at that time by the apostles. Obviously the Bible as we know it did not yet exist. The following must be referring to the old laws of the Jews?

“I have applied all this to Apollos and myself for your benefit, brothers and sisters, so that you may learn through us the meaning of the saying ’ Nothing beyond what is written,’ so that none of you will be puffed up in favor of one against another.”
I Corinthians 4:6

So, is Paul saying the Gentiles were still subject to old Jewish law, or is he talking about some other written material designed to keep “the church” as one and not divided-- and if so, what?
 
(sorry, I just realized this should have been posted in the Scripture section. I’m still not used to the new forum sections being there, and I forgot. :o )
 
Cherub,

It is at least possible that Paul is refering to at least two earlier quotes of scripture in the letter. He says, so that you may not be puffed up, and take a look at the two earlier quotes:
19 For the wisdom of this world is foolishness before God. For it is written, “He is THE ONE WHO CATCHES THE WISE IN THEIR CRAFTINESS”;
20 and again, “THE LORD KNOWS THE REASONINGS of the wise, THAT THEY ARE USELESS.”
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19 For it is written, “I WILL DESTROY THE WISDOM OF THE WISE, AND THE CLEVERNESS OF THE CLEVER I WILL SET ASIDE.”
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These are from the new american standard, which sets off the OT quotes nicely in all caps.

I assume a moderator will move your thread! I forget about individual forums too, because I find my posts by looking at the “new posts” area where they are all mixed together.
 
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Cherub:
Not being extremely well educated in early Church history, but reading from Paul’s letters to the Corinthians, I am wondering what written material was used at that time by the apostles. Obviously the Bible as we know it did not yet exist. The following must be referring to the old laws of the Jews?
Click to expand...
I had a discussion regarding this issue with an Evangelical Protestant friend recently who used the following logic:

In 2 Peter 3:15, Paul’s letters are held up as “Scripture”; therefore, when Paul instructed Timothy that, “All Scripture is inspired of God and is useful for teaching, for reproof, and training in holiness…” (2 Timothy 3:16), Paul was referring not just to the Old Testament Scriptures, but also to his own letters.

However, if one reads verse 3:15 from 2 Timothy, “Likewise, from your infancy you have known the sacred Scriptures…”, Paul could not have been referring to his own letters. Clearly, the only Scriptures recognized as such at the time of the Apostles were the Jewish Scriptures. The Gospels were not likely yet written down in their fullness at this time and no reference is made to the Gospel narratives in the letters of Paul.

However, if one was to acknowledge that the Gospels were not yet in written form at a time when the early Church was alive and well, then one must conclude that the Church itself was the “caretaker” of the teachings of Christ, which would support the Catholic Church’s claim of authority. This, for obvious reasons, is not acceptable to Evangelical and Fundamental Protestants.

Blessings
 
I have applied all this to myself and Apollos for your benefit, brethren, that you may learn by us not to go beyond what is written, that none of you may be puffed up in favor of one against another. (1 Cor 4:6)

I can’t recall exactly where but I remember reading or hearing that the expression “not to go beyond what is written” probably has nothing to do with the Scriptures per se but means to closely follow the example of Paul and Apollos, as one learning to write the letters of the alphabet carefully copies only what is written by her instructor.
 
A very well-read Catholic (former Reformed) friend of mine has said that this is a “pretty tough text.” I’d agree, but after reading Sungenis’ chapter in “Not By Scripture Alone” starting at p.138 where this text is discussed, I’d have to say it’s difficult in 2 ways.
  1. It’s difficult for “everybody” because apparently the Greek is very difficult to translate confidantly. So much so, that apparently, a Protestant scholar J.B. Moffatt did not translate that passage, just left a dotted line in the place of “has been written” and commented on the difficulty translating it.
Sungenis outlines 8 different approaches to this passage. He even shows from Calvin’s commentaries, that Calvin didn’t use this to bolster Sola-Scripture, at least not where you would expect him to use it, right there in the Commentary on that passage! So, it’s difficult to translate and therefore to be sure we are understanding it properly.
  1. It’s difficult for Catholics because it’s like right in your face a verse in Scripture that can be taken to support Sola-Scriptura. But, then again, it’s difficult for Protestants to be sure we’re using it properly. It’s likely that it’s a “saying” that’s not found in any OT or Talmud type writings, so is it useful to adduce Sola Scriptura from a verse that is based on an unwritten, oral saying?
It’s difficult, I think!
 
I know of two possibilities:
  1. Paul could be referring to the OT passages quoted in 3:19. Paul is citing himself and Apollos as examples to follow. The entire segment from 3:18 to 4:13 is about the wisdom of the world vs. the wisdom of God, and presents himself and Apollos as being aware of these Scriptures.
  2. “Keep to what is written” is an old Greek (or was it Jewish, I can’t remember) proverb or maxim. It was used to instruct those learning how to write. The learning technique was to trace over pre-written letters, and to “keep to what is written” was not to stray from the pre-written letters so as to form your own letters properly. The proverb came to mean to follow a good example.
Anyway, just my thoughts, I don’t claim infallibility.
 
Fundamentilist like to use this as a prooftext of sola scriptura but considering the historical timeline here it would be implausible.
THE IVP Bible Commentary which sometimes has a very evangelical slant rules this out but gives some plausible explanations here.
"Philosophers advocating harmony often warned people not to “go beyond what is written” but to comply with a prior agreement; Paul may thus summon them to unity, reminding them of a contract implied in their acceptance of Christ.
Some Commentators have suggested that “not beyond what is written” refers to the learning of schoolchildren, who learned how to write by immitating what was written. Others think Paul refers to scripture, perhaps texts he has cited so far in 1 Corinthians on the worthlessness of human folly.

I think all but the last commentary is a good explanation even taking the weakness of the last commentary that would leave us with Paul referring to letter of 1 Corinthians itslef and not with a complete OT and NT context that fundamentilist would make it out to be.
In most likelyhood it refers to oral tradition that deals with a school of Philosophy most likely Hellenistic or perhaps a Rabinnical oral tradition and how the students were expected to primarily learn.
 
From St. John Chrysostom:

1 COR. iv. 6.
Now these things, brethren, I have in a figure transferred to myself and Apollos for your sakes; that in us ye might learn not to think of men above that which is written.

But what is the meaning of, “not to be wise above what is written?” It is written, (St. Matt. vii. 3.) “Why beholdest thou the mote that is in thy brothers’s eye, but considerest not the beam that is in thine own eye?” and “Judge not, that ye be not judged.” For if we are one and are mutually bound together, it behooveth us not to rise up against one another. For “he that humbleth himself shall be exalted,” saith he. And (St. Matt. xx, 26, 27; St. Mark x, 43; not verbatim.) “He that will be first of all, let him be the servant of all.” These are the things which “are written.”
 
My understanding of the verse is that it is in reference to why Paul is writing to the Corinthians. He’s responding to some problem the community is facing concerning false teachings and he’s laying out the facts for them so that they can get back on track. In context, the statement, “do not go beyond what is written” refers to his own letter to the Corinthians. He’s taking them back to the basics so that they can follow the Truth and and telling them to follow his instructions without deviation.
 
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