Numbers 20:23 and John 5:30. Islam?

[JD27076]

[BIBLEDRB]Numbers 23:19[/BIBLEDRB]

[BIBLEDRB]John 5:30[/BIBLEDRB]

Well, we see that Numbers speaks that God is not a man, Yet Jesus Christ is a man and God. Nor is God the son of man…Yet Jesus is the son of man?

And then in John 5:30, Jesus tells us he cannot do anything on his own, yet he is God, he can do anything.

Does this directly question the Holy Trinity, or the Divinity of Christ?

Islam uses these verses to make us seem wrong.

How would we refute these claims?

 

[meltzerboy]

[BIBLEDRB]Numbers 23:19[/BIBLEDRB]

[BIBLEDRB]John 5:30[/BIBLEDRB]

Well, we see that Numbers speaks that God is not a man, Yet Jesus Christ is a man and God. Nor is God the son of man…Yet Jesus is the son of man?

And then in John 5:30, Jesus tells us he cannot do anything on his own, yet he is God, he can do anything.

Does this directly question the Holy Trinity, or the Divinity of Christ?

Islam uses these verses to make us seem wrong.

How would we refute these claims?

Regardless of my own beliefs, I would say Islam is not entitled to use portions of the Torah and Gospel as proof for their own religious views since they claim that these books are corrupted. It is particularly audacious, IOW a lot of chutzpah, to use the Gospel as evidence against Christian dogma.

 

[Aelred_Minor]

[BIBLEDRB]Numbers 23:19[/BIBLEDRB]

[BIBLEDRB]John 5:30[/BIBLEDRB]

Well, we see that Numbers speaks that God is not a man, Yet Jesus Christ is a man and God. Nor is God the son of man…Yet Jesus is the son of man?

And then in John 5:30, Jesus tells us he cannot do anything on his own, yet he is God, he can do anything.

Does this directly question the Holy Trinity, or the Divinity of Christ?

Islam uses these verses to make us seem wrong.

How would we refute these claims?

The first verse is speaks about God in His Divinity, logically prior to (and also temporally prior to from the perspective of the Israelites of the time) the Incarnation.

It seems to me that the second verse could be applied both to Jesus Christ in His humanity and in His eternal filial relationship to the Father. Since a distinction in wills is made I think probably the immediate sense is the first, but with oikonomia reflecting theologia, as it often does.