P
PseuTonym
Guest
A helpful word in this thread: “intangible.”
The truths of number theory are an intangible part of objective reality.
The best example that I can think of is:
#1 If Fermat’s Last Theorem is true, then it is a part of objective reality.
#2 If Fermat’s Last Theorem is false, then the fact that it is false is a part of objective reality.
Ever since popular magazines announced that Andrew Wiles had a proof of Fermat’s Last Theorem, there has been a temptation for people to say, “It’s simply a matter of language and logic, and doesn’t refer to objective reality. Because there can be no doubt that it is true, this truth is merely a matter of logic and language. Mathematics itself doesn’t include any number theory. Mathematics is just a corpus of deductive reasoning that starts from accepted assumptions that are not necessarily true, etc”
However, what happens if a counter-example is discovered? Then it will be “not part of objective reality, because it isn’t true.”
The ideology that places truths of number theory outside of objective reality seems almost immune to refutation, but of course that is the nature of ideology. It gives people confidence in their opinions, no matter what those opinions happen to be.
As for Wiles, he discovered an error in the alleged proof that was the basis for the announcements. He was then in the uncomfortable position of trying to create a completely correct proof under new circumstances. Previously he had worked in secret, and felt excitement without any sense of obligation. After all, how can you be obligated to prove that a statement is true if it might actually be false?
Just to show that what I am responding to isn’t a figment of my imagination, but is an actually existing ideology, here something from an old post:
Link to the post …
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=13066235&postcount=7
The truths of number theory are an intangible part of objective reality.
The best example that I can think of is:
#1 If Fermat’s Last Theorem is true, then it is a part of objective reality.
#2 If Fermat’s Last Theorem is false, then the fact that it is false is a part of objective reality.
Ever since popular magazines announced that Andrew Wiles had a proof of Fermat’s Last Theorem, there has been a temptation for people to say, “It’s simply a matter of language and logic, and doesn’t refer to objective reality. Because there can be no doubt that it is true, this truth is merely a matter of logic and language. Mathematics itself doesn’t include any number theory. Mathematics is just a corpus of deductive reasoning that starts from accepted assumptions that are not necessarily true, etc”
However, what happens if a counter-example is discovered? Then it will be “not part of objective reality, because it isn’t true.”
The ideology that places truths of number theory outside of objective reality seems almost immune to refutation, but of course that is the nature of ideology. It gives people confidence in their opinions, no matter what those opinions happen to be.
As for Wiles, he discovered an error in the alleged proof that was the basis for the announcements. He was then in the uncomfortable position of trying to create a completely correct proof under new circumstances. Previously he had worked in secret, and felt excitement without any sense of obligation. After all, how can you be obligated to prove that a statement is true if it might actually be false?
Just to show that what I am responding to isn’t a figment of my imagination, but is an actually existing ideology, here something from an old post:
Of course, that post is not as old as A. J. Ayer’s book published in 1936. However, it uses the same method as Ayer’s book: select a trivial example, and then rely upon it as though it were representative of all possible examples.As a non-mathematician, “three” is defined to be an integer, “nine” is defined as three threes, and “prime” as divisible only by itself and unity. Therefore “three is prime” is necessarily true, meaning it is true in all possible worlds by definition. If you like, the definitions in the English dictionary are the axioms, and “three is prime” follows as a correctly formed theorem. It asserts nothing about objective reality
Link to the post …
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=13066235&postcount=7