O
omahahomeschool
Guest
Hello,
In his article “Uncomfortable Facts about the Douay-Rheims,” Mr. Akin states that “while the Vulgate in its latest edition—the ‘Neo-Vulgate’ promulgated by John Paul II—has a privileged position based on its use in ecclesiastical documents, the law has changed such that there is no ‘official’ translation of Scripture for the Latin rite.”
Which law was this and when was it changed?
How does this jibe with Scripturarum Thesaurus, in which John Paul declared the “New Vulgate edition of the Holy Bible as “typical” and we promulgate it to be used especially in the sacred Liturgy but also as suitable for other things, as we have said.”
I would request that respondents include references to Church documents in their answers. I find non-authoritative information unhelpful.
Thanks for any help that you can give me.
In his article “Uncomfortable Facts about the Douay-Rheims,” Mr. Akin states that “while the Vulgate in its latest edition—the ‘Neo-Vulgate’ promulgated by John Paul II—has a privileged position based on its use in ecclesiastical documents, the law has changed such that there is no ‘official’ translation of Scripture for the Latin rite.”
Which law was this and when was it changed?
How does this jibe with Scripturarum Thesaurus, in which John Paul declared the “New Vulgate edition of the Holy Bible as “typical” and we promulgate it to be used especially in the sacred Liturgy but also as suitable for other things, as we have said.”
I would request that respondents include references to Church documents in their answers. I find non-authoritative information unhelpful.
Thanks for any help that you can give me.