Old Testament Changed the Torah?

[Veritas6]

What do you make of the Jewish perspective that the Old Testament is a “changed and redacted version of the Torah”?:

“Jesus (Isah), a orthodox Jewish Rabbi, a Follower of the Torah and all the Jewish laws such as keeping Shabbat, following the Kashruth (eating kosher) etc. According to the Christian Bible - Jesus is a grand grand son of King David and King Salomo (Shlomo haMelech). According to Jewish tradition this would make Jesus a legitimate king, while Herodes was put in place by Rome and never chosen by the people of Israel. This explains the tremendous threat that was being imposed on Romans and Herodes by the pure presence of Jesus, and the childhood narrative with Herodes trying to kill all male newborns.

You have to understand that Jesus (Isah) was a teacher of Jewish religion to Jewish people, who strictly followed the book of god (the Torah).

You have to understand that Jesus never declared the Torah or it’s laws invalid. This is what Non-Jewish (Roman) christians did later.

Understand that Jesus talking about his fathers house (the temple) … this doesn’t refer to god. Father and grandfather is aba in Hebrew … has nothing to do with god. His grandfathers house is Salomo‘s temple, because the temple was built by King Salomo his grandfather.

Understand that being Messiah (Meschiach) has nothing to do with being god and no Jewish Rabbi will ever claim to be god.

Roman christians declared the Torah invalid and made Rome the center of Christianity, while Jerusalem is the eternal Capitol of Israel.“
(Emphasis mine)

“The apostle Paul taught that we are no longer under the Law. Period.

All who rely on observing the law are under a curse , for it is written: “Cursed is everyone who does not continue to do everything written in the Book of the Law.” (Galatians 3:10)”.

It’s an interesting perspective, what do you think?

 

[BartholomewB]

You have to understand that Jesus never declared the Torah or it’s laws invalid. This is what Non-Jewish (Roman) christians did later .

True for the most part, but there is one notable exception, the Mosaic law dealing with divorce. Moses taught:

1 When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house. 2 And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man’s wife (Deut 24:1-2, KJV).

Jesus explicitly rejects Moses’ law on divorce and decrees a radical change:

7 They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away? 8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so. 9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery (Matt 19:8-9, KJV).

Understand that being Messiah (Meschiach) has nothing to do with being god and no Jewish Rabbi will ever claim to be god .

Yes, that is the plain truth. In the OT, the Messiah, the Lord’s anointed, is invariably referred to as a man, not in any way a divine being. Sometimes, significantly, the word is found in the plural, as in 1 Chron 16:22, where the Lord warns Israel’s enemies to do no harm to “my anointed ones (my Messiahs, my Christs) and my prophets.” In the Vulgate, this verse reads, “Nolite tangere christos meos, et in prophetis meis nolite malignari.”

 

[GiftofMercy]

Where have you quoted this all from?

 

[GiftofMercy]

Sorry, I meant to ask Veritas6. I was not clear. There is a lot to unpack in his or her opening post. I assume it is a quote because of the non translated words, i.e. King Solomon. Shlomo haMelech simply means King Solomon. Book of God (in non capital letters) is an interesting term as it is not how the Biblical Hebrew would refer to these Books.
The reference to the Temple and disconnecting it from God (again in non capitals) , and again the spelling of Abba, the use word Salomo ( now capitalised as a proper noun) and still not translated as (english) King Solomon …

And then the statement the early christians declared the first few books of the Hebrew Bible invalid , and that Christians were no longer living under the law…

All very curious as to where this was quoted from. What is the source, and what is its agenda.

 

[BartholomewB]

Yes, I realized my mistake, and immediately deleted my comment. You must have been very quick to spot it!

I imagine the source is something the OP found on a comments thread, either here at CAF or on some other website.