S
SouthernSister
Guest
In a discussion with someone discussing the Last Supper, it has been suggested that Jesus could not have been “at table” and fully present in the bread and wine because he was not omnipresent until AFTER the resurrection.
Can I have your views on how to answer this objection?
Thanks in advance,
SouthernSister
Can I have your views on how to answer this objection?
Thanks in advance,
SouthernSister