B
Byrhtferth
Guest
Hi all,
I’m struggling to reconcile God’s omniscience with his desire that all men be saved. God being omniscient, He surely thus knows that some of us will not be saved - and He also has surely thus decided to allow these people not to be saved for a greater purpose (much like, for instance, he allowed the Fall to happen).
If this is the case, how can we speak of God desiring that all men be saved? Can God desire something that He knows is impossible (i.e. all men being saved and His greater purpose being maintained)? Is it really His ‘desire’ if He has declined to use His power and make it happen, on the grounds that it would defeat a greater desire of His?
As I said, I’m not sure how to reconcile these doctrines, and any help would be much appreciated.
I’m struggling to reconcile God’s omniscience with his desire that all men be saved. God being omniscient, He surely thus knows that some of us will not be saved - and He also has surely thus decided to allow these people not to be saved for a greater purpose (much like, for instance, he allowed the Fall to happen).
If this is the case, how can we speak of God desiring that all men be saved? Can God desire something that He knows is impossible (i.e. all men being saved and His greater purpose being maintained)? Is it really His ‘desire’ if He has declined to use His power and make it happen, on the grounds that it would defeat a greater desire of His?
As I said, I’m not sure how to reconcile these doctrines, and any help would be much appreciated.