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I have a question. I’m hoping someone with a better understanding of the old testament than I can clear this up for me.
There is an anti-Catholic video on the web that makes a lot of absurd claims. One of the claims is that Church is the “Whore of Babylon”. Not a new argument, I know. It’s the standard “Church came into power in 538 AD and received a mortal wound in 1798 when Napoleon kidnapped the Pope. This theory is hinged mostly on Daniel 7:25 “He will speak against the Most High and oppress his saints and try to change the set times and the laws. The saints will be handed over to him for a time, times and half a time.”
The video defines a “time” as one year and declares that the passage adds up to 3.5 years which equals 1260 days. It then says that one day = one prophetic year. It calls this a time honored principal of interpretation and cites Numbers 14:34 and Ezekiel 4:6.
Numbers 14:34
“According to the number of days in which you spied out the land, forty days, for every day a year, you shall bear your iniquity forty years and you shall know my displeasure.
Ezekiel 4:6
And when you have completed these you shall lie down a second time but on your right side and bear the punishment of the house of Judah, forty days I assign you a day for each year.
-each day of rebellion is one year of punishment. Each year of rebellion is one day of punishment.
Here’s my question.
If we look at Numbers 14:34 and Ezekiel 4:6 we see the common theme of punishment or judgement. But we also see God spelling it out for us. God tells us explicitly that a day = a year or a year = a day. Daniel does not. But lets assume that it is intended to be a day = a year or a year = a day in the case of Daniel. Is there anything in Numbers or Ezekiel that would prompt us to convert the the years to days first and then assign the one day = one year? If not, if we were to apply this principle to Daniel 7:25 wouldn’t we go from 3.5 years to 3.5 days?
I ask because I just want to make sure that there isn’t something within the texts of Numbers or Ezekiel that would suggest or point to the conversion of days/years before applying the day for a year principle. From what I see, it appears to be a twisting of the scripture in order to fit their agenda.
Thanks in advance!
There is an anti-Catholic video on the web that makes a lot of absurd claims. One of the claims is that Church is the “Whore of Babylon”. Not a new argument, I know. It’s the standard “Church came into power in 538 AD and received a mortal wound in 1798 when Napoleon kidnapped the Pope. This theory is hinged mostly on Daniel 7:25 “He will speak against the Most High and oppress his saints and try to change the set times and the laws. The saints will be handed over to him for a time, times and half a time.”
The video defines a “time” as one year and declares that the passage adds up to 3.5 years which equals 1260 days. It then says that one day = one prophetic year. It calls this a time honored principal of interpretation and cites Numbers 14:34 and Ezekiel 4:6.
Numbers 14:34
“According to the number of days in which you spied out the land, forty days, for every day a year, you shall bear your iniquity forty years and you shall know my displeasure.
Ezekiel 4:6
And when you have completed these you shall lie down a second time but on your right side and bear the punishment of the house of Judah, forty days I assign you a day for each year.
-each day of rebellion is one year of punishment. Each year of rebellion is one day of punishment.
Here’s my question.
If we look at Numbers 14:34 and Ezekiel 4:6 we see the common theme of punishment or judgement. But we also see God spelling it out for us. God tells us explicitly that a day = a year or a year = a day. Daniel does not. But lets assume that it is intended to be a day = a year or a year = a day in the case of Daniel. Is there anything in Numbers or Ezekiel that would prompt us to convert the the years to days first and then assign the one day = one year? If not, if we were to apply this principle to Daniel 7:25 wouldn’t we go from 3.5 years to 3.5 days?
I ask because I just want to make sure that there isn’t something within the texts of Numbers or Ezekiel that would suggest or point to the conversion of days/years before applying the day for a year principle. From what I see, it appears to be a twisting of the scripture in order to fit their agenda.
Thanks in advance!