Orthodox vs. Catholic Doctrinal Development

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Hi Ghosty,
Actually the issue was over the use of unleavened bread; it was the Latin Cardinals who brought up the filioque when they went to Constantinople, mistakenly believing the Greeks had removed it from the Creed.

The Patriarch of Constantinople had been lambasting the Latins for using azymes, and supposedly had even ordered and taken part in the desacration of the unleavened Eucharist. That is why the Cardinals were sent to Constantinople, and that is when Cardinal Humbert made the filioque an issue from the Latin side (along with a lot of other nonsense like the aforementioned not shaving, though I’ve heard that this was response to accusations against the Latins by certain Greeks). The filioque was actually not much of an issue at the time, until Cardinal Humbert made it one (and even then, despite Humbert’s statements, Rome wasn’t trying to force the filioque OR unleavened bread on the East, but rather Rome was being attacked for using unleavened bread).

It’s interesting to note that just prior to this period the Byzantines had been having severe conflict with the Armenians (who also used unleavened bread), and had developed an idea that their use of unleavened bread was connected with their supposed Monophysitism. When it came to light that this attack would apply to the Latins as well, things got heated up considerably. :o

Peace and God bless!
Thank you.

That was very interesting 🙂

So again it seems as though it was the Greek Catholics who were remonstrating, but actually about azymes. Perhaps mistakenly 🤷, perhaps not.

So it does not look as though the East was rebelling, as such. Something else was going on here… :hmmm:

The reason I say this is because there is a common understanding (or misunderstanding, depending upon whatever… ) that the Eastern Catholics ‘broke away’ because they were rebelling from the Pope’s authority. That’s just not how it looks, at least not to me.
 
Hi Ghosty, Thank you.

That was very interesting 🙂

So again it seems as though it was the Greek Catholics who were remonstrating, but actually about azymes. Perhaps mistakenly 🤷, perhaps not.

So it does not look as though the East was rebelling, as such. Something else was going on here… :hmmm:

The reason I say this is because there is a common understanding (or misunderstanding, depending upon whatever… ) that the Eastern Catholics ‘broke away’ because they were rebelling from the Pope’s authority. That’s just not how it looks, at least not to me.
Well, I think it mostly indicates why 1054 is such a poor time to p(name removed by moderator)oint the Schism. Obviously there was an ecclesial scuffle, and Cardinal Humbert and the Patriarch of Constantinople excommunicated eachother, but it doesn’t mark any kind of formal split. At most I’d say it represents the beginning of the falling apart of the unity, but it certainly wasn’t severed at that particular time. At the very least Antioch didn’t leave Communion with Rome in 1054.

Honestly, I think the better date to put as the “formalization” of the Schism would be 1204 with the sacking of Constantinople. Prior to that the relationship was extremely spotty, with 1054 certainly being a low-point, but it hadn’t reached a point of no return, and there were still times of greater unity between 1054 and 1204. 😊

Peace and God bless!
 
Well, I think it mostly indicates why 1054 is such a poor time to p(name removed by moderator)oint the Schism. Obviously there was an ecclesial scuffle, and Cardinal Humbert and the Patriarch of Constantinople excommunicated eachother, but it doesn’t mark any kind of formal split. At most I’d say it represents the beginning of the falling apart of the unity, but it certainly wasn’t severed at that particular time. At the very least Antioch didn’t leave Communion with Rome in 1054.

Honestly, I think the better date to put as the “formalization” of the Schism would be 1204 with the sacking of Constantinople. Prior to that the relationship was extremely spotty, with 1054 certainly being a low-point, but it hadn’t reached a point of no return, and there were still times of greater unity between 1054 and 1204. 😊

Peace and God bless!
Yes. I agree with this.

God bless.
 
Well, I think it mostly indicates why 1054 is such a poor time to p(name removed by moderator)oint the Schism. Obviously there was an ecclesial scuffle, and Cardinal Humbert and the Patriarch of Constantinople excommunicated eachother, but it doesn’t mark any kind of formal split. At most I’d say it represents the beginning of the falling apart of the unity, but it certainly wasn’t severed at that particular time. At the very least Antioch didn’t leave Communion with Rome in 1054.

Honestly, I think the better date to put as the “formalization” of the Schism would be 1204 with the sacking of Constantinople. Prior to that the relationship was extremely spotty, with 1054 certainly being a low-point, but it hadn’t reached a point of no return, and there were still times of greater unity between 1054 and 1204. 😊

Peace and God bless!
Ghosty, I read not so long ago that during the council of Florence the West and East were going to reconcile but due to Islamic control of Constantinople at the time we were not able to attain unity.
 
Ghosty, I read not so long ago that during the council of Florence the West and East were going to reconcile but due to Islamic control of Constantinople at the time we were not able to attain unity.
This is believed by many Catholics.
 
Okay. I am glad that we agree.
I just want to clear up any possible confusion: I do not agree that Rome broke with Apostolic tradition, only that the Orthodox believe that Rome did.

Obviously, as a Catholic, I believe that the Orthodox are mistaken in their stance on the status of Rome.

Peace and God bless!
 
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