M
MarcoPolo
Guest
No, he did not that I can see. In fact you are replying to my post in response to that statement. The CDF statement recalls the 3 criteria for papal infallibility in its very statement. See also this Pope Benedict quote from a homily from my first post of this thread.Cardinal Ratzinger, as Prefect of the CDF, disagreed with you. See the statement from the CDF linked to earlier in this thread.
*Recently a group of priests from a European country issued a summons to disobedience, and at the same time gave concrete examples of the forms this disobedience might take, even to the point of disregarding definitive decisions of the Church’s Magisterium, such as the question of women’s ordination, for which Blessed Pope John Paul II stated irrevocably that the Church has received no authority from the Lord. (Pope Benedict XVI, April 5, 2012)*That is consistent with the CDF’s emphasis on JP2 invoking all 3 of the necessary criteria for infallibility when it said:*Thus, in the present circumstances, the Roman Pontiff, exercising his proper office of confirming the brethren (cf. Lk 22:32), has handed on this same teaching by a formal declaration, explicitly stating what is to be held always, everywhere, and by all, as belonging to the deposit of the faith.*Those are the 3 criteria for papal infallibility: speaking from Petrine office, for all the faithful, on a matter of faith/morals.
And that, as I said earlier, does not preclude the Ordinary Magisterium from having exercised infallibility throughout the centuries in its own way.