puzzleannie:
Canon Law is not formed by polling personal opinions of random Catholics, it is formed to reflect the reality of what the Church teaches in regulating sacramental practice and administration of the Church, the Body of Christ on earth. It is changeable because it deals with discipline, not doctrine, but there is a theology of canon law, and it reflects theology, but does not define it.
Canon law cannot change the underlying doctrine it reflects. For instance, Canon law can never change to allow the ordination of women to the priesthood. Canon law also cannot change natural law, which is the underlying basis of theology on marriage, a sacrament which is regulated by canon law. For example, canon law could never be changed to allow homosexual “marriage” because this would be an impossibility under natural law.
Annie,
Here is a bit about natural law from New Advent Catholic Encyclopedia…
Natural Law…
‘The standard is our whole human nature with its manifold relationships, considered as a creature destined to a special end. Actions are wrong if, though subserving the satisfaction of some particular need or tendency, they are at the same time incompatible with that rational harmonious subordination of the lower to the higher which reason should maintain among our conflicting tendencies and desires (see GOOD). For example, to nourish our bodies is right; but to indulge our appetite for food to the detriment of our corporal or spiritual life is wrong…Theft is wrong, because it subverts the basis of social life; and man’s nature requires for its proper development that he live in a state of society.’
Aquinas-
Aquinas on whether impotence is an impediment ot marriage…
“…But if he cannot fulfill the carnal act with a virgin, while he can with one who is not a virgin, the hymeneal membrane may be broken by a medical instrument, and thus he may have connection with her. Nor would this be contrary to nature, for it would be done not for pleasure but for a remedy.”
:twocents: Just as a medical instrument is used to aid in consumation here why could it not be used for the man as well? Not for pleasure but for remedy. :twocents:
And he continues…"Although old people have not sufficient calidity to procreate, they have sufficient to copulate. Wherefore they are allowed to marry, in so far as marriage is intended as a remedy, although it does not befit them as fulfilling an office of nature. "
So would it follow that a man who cannot procreate but could copulate and could use a medical instrument to do so (as stated above) would this then be permissable? When breaking the membrane of the virgin they are using a medical insturment. The instrument is then allowing them to have intercouse. And as we discussed before sterility is not an issue here. So the man could have a prosthetic penis and this should fulfill the marriage contract should it not?
