Passing on Original Sin

[OwenInItalics]

So, original sin is passed down no matter what you do, but baptism cleanses original sin. Right? If you have children after your baptism, how come they still have original sin?

 

[Vico]

So, original sin is passed down no matter what you do, but baptism cleanses original sin. Right? If you have children after your baptism, how come they still have original sin?

“the consequences for nature … persist”

Catechism

405 Although it is proper to each individual,295 original sin does not have the character of a personal fault in any of Adam’s descendants. It is a deprivation of original holiness and justice, but human nature has not been totally corrupted: it is wounded in the natural powers proper to it, subject to ignorance, suffering and the dominion of death, and inclined to sin - an inclination to evil that is called concupiscence". Baptism, by imparting the life of Christ’s grace, erases original sin and turns a man back towards God, but the consequences for nature, weakened and inclined to evil, persist in man and summon him to spiritual battle.

406 The Church’s teaching on the transmission of original sin was articulated more precisely in the fifth century, especially under the impulse of St. Augustine’s reflections against Pelagianism, and in the sixteenth century, in opposition to the Protestant Reformation. Pelagius held that man could, by the natural power of free will and without the necessary help of God’s grace, lead a morally good life; he thus reduced the influence of Adam’s fault to bad example. The first Protestant reformers, on the contrary, taught that original sin has radically perverted man and destroyed his freedom; they identified the sin inherited by each man with the tendency to evil (concupiscentia), which would be insurmountable. The Church pronounced on the meaning of the data of Revelation on original sin especially at the second Council of Orange (529)296 and at the Council of Trent (1546).297

 

[De_Maria]

Good question.

It was explained to me, that Adam and Eve lost the state of original holiness and justice and could therefore, not pass that on to their children.

If both parents are baptized, that would mean that original sin has been erased in their souls:

405 Although it is proper to each individual, original sin does not have the character of a personal fault in any of Adam’s descendants. It is a deprivation of original holiness and justice, but human nature has not been totally corrupted: it is wounded in the natural powers proper to it, subject to ignorance, suffering and the dominion of death, and inclined to sin - an inclination to evil that is called concupiscence". Baptism, by imparting the life of Christ’s grace, erases original sin and turns a man back towards God, but the consequences for nature, weakened and inclined to evil, persist in man and summon him to spiritual battle.

Then, why do they still pass on that condition if their children are conceived after Baptism?

Good question.

 

[De_Maria]

So, original sin is passed down no matter what you do, but baptism cleanses original sin. Right? If you have children after your baptism, how come they still have original sin?

OK. The only thing I can figure is that the person who explained it to me in that way, is not correct. The Council of Orange, one of the first ecumenical and infallible councils, says that:

CANON 2. If anyone asserts that Adam’s sin affected him alone and not his descendants also, or at least if he declares that it is only the death of the body which is the punishment for sin, and not also that sin , which is the death of the soul, passed through one man to the whole human race , he does injustice to God and contradicts the Apostle, who says, “Therefore as sin came into the world through one man and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all men sinned” (Rom. 5:12).

I got that quote fromthis blog.

So, it isn’t inherited from the parents. It comes to us directly from Adam.

I hope that helps.

 

[Metis1]

To me, the question of “original sin” is just that-- a question. It doesn’t make sense on the surface, so I tend to lean in the direction of it being a theological construct that relates to the strong traditional Mediterranean view that the family is one cohesive unit that goes well beyond just the immediate family. Thus, when one person in the family sins, it affects all in the family, plus there’s going to be a propensity for us to sin because of our “free will”.

Thus it relates to baptism in that if we are in Christ and stay in Christ, we don’t have to fear being abandoned by God.

My take, at least.

 

[Genesis315]

Human generation relates only to the body; the soul is created immediately by God. Therefore, parents pass on the effects of original sin in the body, which are not removed by baptism. God, on the other hand, creates our soul immediately without the supernatural gifts (emphasis on “gifts”) given to our first parents, which He now bestows on us through baptism.

 

[JohnR77]

Thank you. All excellent points.

I will it attempt to expand further, However limited my knowledge is.

A person can only give that which is truly his own By nature

And so, We can only pass on that fallen human nature. And that is Why we each have those 3 lasting effects in this life of original sin, a weakened will, a darkened intellect , and concupiscent

Original Sin
.
https://www.defendingthebride.com/sc/baptism.html#orig