Passover difference in John's Gospel

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AdvanceAlways

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Can someone explain the synoptic Gospels and John’s Gospel have a different date for the Passover? This seems like a pretty big point in the context of Christ’s passion. What is the reason for such a contradiction…?
 
AdvanceAlways said:
Can someone explain the synoptic Gospels and John’s Gospel have a different date for the Passover? This seems like a pretty big point in the context of Christ’s passion. What is the reason for such a contradiction…?
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They answered this same question on a recent edition of Catholic Answers Live, I believe with Jimmy Akin. I believe it went something similar to these points.

What we do whenever there are “contradictions” in the Bible is to look closer at them, because often there is only an apparent contradiction where there is in fact, none.

In regards to this specific “contradiction”, the best way to explain it is that they use two different methods of measuring time. Just as someone can measure the day of the year by the specific amount of days that have past, or the number of full moons, the month, etc. There are many ways to measure time, and they are simply measuring the same amount of time differently.
 
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