This thread is quite helpful, because I was engaged about a year ago in a “discussion” about the same thing.
For the record, the CCC calls Jesus’ Passover supper “the definitive Passover” or something like that.
A professed nun with a Ph.D. in my diocese was making an empassioned statement in a Catholic newspaper article that the “last supper” was NOT a Passover.
Then, she launches into her agenda: “Therefore” NO ONE can tell what the disciples ate with Jesus. Specifically, there is no proof that they ate unleavened bread. So…the use of unleavened bread in the Roman Mass is without foundation. THEREFORE…she is perfectly justified for “pastoral reasons” to use communion breads made with sugar, honey, and fruit and whatever.
I read Hahn’s piece, which is quite good, by the way, which is available as a link to THIS ROCK magazine way up under “Library” in the menu above (as I recall).
My answer to her at the time was based on the Catechism, and thereby on the synoptic gospels, AND on the eminence and providence of Christ to command his disciples to celebrate the Passover on a particular day, which is what the gospels say.
And, much deeper and to Hahn’s point, the Passover involved consuming the passover victim.
Aside: I don’t know if I will convince anyone, but the “Last Supper” is not a term in scripture. If you have the Bible in some electronic form, you will not find that term. “The Last Supper” is, actually, the painting by DaVinci of that Passover meal. On no particular qualification of my own, but just of scripture, I think the term the Lord’s Passover is a better title for that Passover meal so detailed in scripture. Beware though, that “the last supper” is a very common term in Vatican and Papal documents.
Thanks to those who contributed to this thread.