Perfect Contrition

[Verbum_Caro]

I think we not finding common ground on the main issue here.

My contention is very simple.

Hi thistle,

Thank you for stating your position so clearly.

If someone is in a state of grace they may receive Communion.

True, at least not profitably. To knowingly do so would be sacrilege, disobedient to Christ and His Church, and a sin.

If someone may not receive Communion it means they are NOT in a state of grace.

Not true. One has to be in the state of grace and properly disposed. For instance, you must observe the required fast. There are other conditions which could act as a prohibition to receiving communion, even if one is in the state of grace.

An act of perfect contrition (even if this can be achieved) does not permit the person to receive Communion before they have gone to Confession. Why? Because absolution must be given to put you in a state of grace.

That’s not quite accurate. Absolution *does *put one in the state of grace, that is true. But there are other ways – Baptism and Anointing of the Sick does, for instance. And it is also possible to receive extra-sacramental forgiveness through perfect contrition.

As far as an act of contrition not permitting the person to receive communion, what do you make of Canon 916? Do you see how that explicitly does allow someone to receive communion prior to the sacrament of penance?

Thistle, I understand that we disagree on this point. I’m not trying to prolong this discussion in order to win you to my position. Rather, from what I’ve seen of you on these forums, it is obvious that you only wish to think with the mind of the Church. I believe that the position that I have explained above represents the mind of the Church on the matter. Your position is understandable and reasonable, but it doesn’t take into account the full picture. In fact, your position was *specifically adressed by St. Thomas Aquinas in the Summa. *You are in good company!
Objection 3. Further, nothing but sin is an obstacle to receiving the Eucharist. But the contrite should not go to Communion before going to confession. Therefore they have not yet received the forgiveness of their sins.

Reply to Objection 3. Eucharist belongs to the ministers of the The dispensation of the Church: wherefore a man should not go to Communion until his sin has been forgiven through the ministers of the Church, although his sin may be forgiven him before God.

What do you think? Have I, and St. Thomas, convinced you?

VC

 

[thistle]

Hi thistle,

Thank you for stating your position so clearly.

True, at least not profitably. To knowingly do so would be sacrilege, disobedient to Christ and His Church, and a sin.

Not true. One has to be in the state of grace and properly disposed. For instance, you must observe the required fast. There are other conditions which could act as a prohibition to receiving communion, even if one is in the state of grace.

That’s not quite accurate. Absolution *does *put one in the state of grace, that is true. But there are other ways – Baptism and Anointing of the Sick does, for instance. And it is also possible to receive extra-sacramental forgiveness through perfect contrition.

As far as an act of contrition not permitting the person to receive communion, what do you make of Canon 916? Do you see how that explicitly does allow someone to receive communion prior to the sacrament of penance?

Thistle, I understand that we disagree on this point. I’m not trying to prolong this discussion in order to win you to my position. Rather, from what I’ve seen of you on these forums, it is obvious that you only wish to think with the mind of the Church. I believe that the position that I have explained above represents the mind of the Church on the matter. Your position is understandable and reasonable, but it doesn’t take into account the full picture. In fact, your position was specifically adressed by St. Thomas Aquinas in the Summa. You are in good company!
Objection 3. Further, nothing but sin is an obstacle to receiving the Eucharist. But the contrite should not go to Communion before going to confession. Therefore they have not yet received the forgiveness of their sins.

Reply to Objection 3. Eucharist belongs to the ministers of the The dispensation of the Church: wherefore a man should not go to Communion until his sin has been forgiven through the ministers of the Church, although his sin may be forgiven him before God.

What do you think? Have I, and St. Thomas, convinced you?

VC

I’m not sure why you are talking about Baptsim and Anointing of the Sick. I know that but that’s not what we are discussing. Our discussion is on Perfect Contrition, Confession, Communion.

A person in a state of grace may receive Communion. If that person gets out of bed and is grumpy and irritable that would not take away their state of grace or prevent them from receiving. These dispositions are imperfections and venial sins which are anyway removed by prayer, and contrition during Mass prior to receiving.
As for the one hour fast if you look at canon 919 3. you will see that the elderly, those suffering from an illness, and those caring for them are allowed to receive even if they have eaten during the hour prior to receiving. Others who have eaten during that hour do not actually commit a sin until they receive and so are still in a state of grace up to that point. Eating during that hour is not a sin.

 

[Verbum_Caro]

Hi thistle,

I’m not sure why you are talking about Baptsim and Anointing of the Sick.

I only pointed that out because you stated that absolution must be given to put one in the state of grace. Strictly speaking, that wasn’t accurate, because there are other ways – like perfect contrition.

What do you make of the Summa citation? Essentially St. Thomas’ interlocutor was objecting on the same grounds as you are, by saying that since it is a rule that one must go to confession before communion then that means that contrition does not forgive sins, since nothing but sin is an obstacle to receiving communion.

St. Thomas answers that other things may be an obstacle to communion, and that in this case, although perfect contrition DID forgive mortal sin, and restore sanctifying grace (i.e. “forgiven. . . before God”) one is normally not permitted to go to communion because it hasn’t been submitted to the Church, who is the administrator of the sacraments.

VC

 

[Verbum_Caro]

Just for any others following along, the Catechism of St. Pius X states it simply:

41 Q. Why does perfect sorrow or contrition produce the effect of restoring us to the grace of God?

A. Perfect sorrow or contrition produces this effect, because it proceeds from charity which cannot exist in the soul together with sin.

It should be noted, however, that perfect contrition does not exist independently of the Sacrament of Penance, as the Council of Trent points out, since it must include (for a Catholic) the explicit intention to avail oneself of the sacrament as soon as possible.
VC