D
Darryl_B
Guest
In the New Testament the masculine “petros” is only ever applied to Peter. In all cases of “rock” the Greek word is “petra”, the feminine. (Excluding lithos stone).
When I read the definitions of the two words “petra” and “petros”, I cannot actually see any real difference between the two that would require two Greek words to express the very same thing “rock”. So an author would observe a rock and then have to question to themselves whether it would categorically be more appropriate to describe that “rock” as a “petra” or a “petros”.
My question then is this, does the Greek word “petros” actually appear in any literature external to the NT, that it can then be shown that “petros” is anything more than just a Proper Name as a masculine equivalent of “petra”?
When I read the definitions of the two words “petra” and “petros”, I cannot actually see any real difference between the two that would require two Greek words to express the very same thing “rock”. So an author would observe a rock and then have to question to themselves whether it would categorically be more appropriate to describe that “rock” as a “petra” or a “petros”.
My question then is this, does the Greek word “petros” actually appear in any literature external to the NT, that it can then be shown that “petros” is anything more than just a Proper Name as a masculine equivalent of “petra”?