Please tell me if these marriage true

[foolishmortal]

Can non-Catholic Christians marry each other, as recognized by God, using a justice of the peace and not a minister–is it merely a civil, contractual marriage only recognized by the state and family and friends?

Also, would one spouse withholding his/her infertility or desire not to have children be grounds for an annulment, since they might not be told that they are to have at least one child, while married, in modern times?

 

[passus]

Can non-Catholic Christians marry each other, as recognized by God, using a justice of the peace and not a minister–is it merely a civil, contractual marriage only recognized by the state and family and friends?

The two would be considered married in the eyes of the Catholic Church assuming neither party had been validly married prior.

Also, would one spouse withholding his/her infertility or desire not to have children be grounds for an annulment, since they might not be told that they are to have at least one child, while married, in modern times?

“Withholding his/her infertility?” I’m not sure what you mean here. Could you please explain?

 

[foolishmortal]

Wouldn’t Catholics, at least, have to plan to make at least one child to be married?

 

[passus]

Wouldn’t Catholics, at least, have to plan to make at least one child to be married?

No, but they must state their mutual intent to “accept children lovingly from God, and bring them up according to the law of Christ and His Church” (Rite of Marriage).

 

[1ke]

Can non-Catholic Christians marry each other, as recognized by God, using a justice of the peace and not a minister–is it merely a civil, contractual marriage only recognized by the state and family and friends?

Yes, non-Catholics validly marry each other when they marry civilly-- either with a justice of the peace or other civil official or a minister of some faith.

This is not true of the Orthodox Churches, which require their members to be married in the Orthodox Church by an Orthodox priest.

Also, would one spouse withholding his/her infertility or desire not to have children be grounds for an annulment, since they might not be told that they are to have at least one child, while married, in modern times?

If the spouse did not disclose the fact that they were infertile (presuming they knew with certainty they were infertile prior to marraige) or did not disclose that they had a permanent intent against ever having children to their future spouse, yes this could be grounds for nullity.

 

[1ke]

Wouldn’t Catholics, at least, have to plan to make at least one child to be married?

No. The couple does not have to “plan” anything.

The couple must accept children lovingly, and can take no action during any act of sexual intercourse to render that act sterile (ie, they cannot contracept or sterilize themselves).

 

[mary1173]

Yes, non-Catholics validly marry each other when they marry civilly-- either with a justice of the peace or other civil official or a minister of some faith.

This is not true of the Orthodox Churches, which require their members to be married in the Orthodox Church by an Orthodox priest.

If the spouse did not disclose the fact that they were infertile (presuming they knew with certainty they were infertile prior to marraige) or did not disclose that they had a permanent intent against ever having children to their future spouse, yes this could be grounds for nullity.

I fail to see how being infertile is grounds for nullity. please explain your answer. I am infertile [not of my own choice, but because of endometriosis] and would welcome children into a marriage, even if they were not my own, i.e, adoption or foster parenting. In what way does it make sense to toss someone you love aside if you cannot bear their children??? This is a problem my sisters brother-in-law had when he found out his wife couldn’t have kids she gave up and wanted a divorce. I told my sister to tell them to go to a marriage counselor and hash things out before throwing in the towel and saying ‘‘the h-- with it!’’ That they still love one another, but need to consider children who DON’T come from her womb! Adoption is accepted by the Catholic Church as a person’s having children and raising them as God wants…Anyone who espouses to tell someone else that because they are infertile their marriage is invalid or null is an idiot.

 

[1ke]

I fail to see how being infertile is grounds for nullity.

I did not say infertility was grounds for a decree of nullity. It is not.

please explain your answer.

I said that *failure to disclose * inferility that is known about prior to marriage *may *be grounds for a decree of nullity (canon 1098). Here is the relevant canon law on the matter:

Can. 1084 §3. Sterility neither prohibits nor nullifies marriage, without prejudice to the prescript of ⇒ can. 1098.

Can. 1098 A person contracts invalidly who enters into a marriage deceived by malice, perpetrated to obtain consent, concerning some quality of the other partner which by its very nature can gravely disturb the partnership of conjugal life.

I am infertile [not of my own choice, but because of endometriosis] and would welcome children into a marriage, even if they were not my own, i.e, adoption or foster parenting. In what way does it make sense to toss someone you love aside if you cannot bear their children??? This is a problem my sisters brother-in-law had when he found out his wife couldn’t have kids she gave up and wanted a divorce. I told my sister to tell them to go to a marriage counselor and hash things out before throwing in the towel and saying ‘‘the h-- with it!’’ That they still love one another, but need to consider children who DON’T come from her womb! Adoption is accepted by the Catholic Church as a person’s having children and raising them as God wants…Anyone who espouses to tell someone else that because they are infertile their marriage is invalid or null is an idiot.

You are spewing out emotion-- and name calling-- without having read what I actually said. I think you need to calm down.

 

[Joe_Kelley]

. . .
If the spouse did not disclose the fact that they were infertile (presuming they knew with certainty they were infertile prior to marraige) or did not disclose that they had a permanent intent against ever having children to their future spouse, yes this could be grounds for nullity.

I think you have two different situations here. Non-disclosure of infertility may be grounds for nullity. I think that a permanent intent against ever having children is of itself grounds for nullity whether or not it was disclosed.