A
Augustine3
Guest
If God’s love is infinitely complete, how is possible to “please” God?
Good question. Burnt offerings pleased his sense of smell for some time.If God’s love is infinitely complete, how is possible to “please” God?
By not being opposed to or inconsistent with love.If God’s love is infinitely complete, how is possible to “please” God?
I like this from Proverbs 21:3:Good question. Burnt offerings pleased his sense of smell for some time.
How can we be sure he has been pleased enough?
Conversely, how is it possible to “anger” God?If God’s love is infinitely complete, how is possible to “please” God?
Amusement?Conversely, how is it possible to “anger” God?
And why would God create something (Mankind) that would at times anger Him?
God gave us free will. He loves us infinitely, and with the help of His grace we can love and obey Him.Conversely, how is it possible to “anger” God?
And why would God create something (Mankind) that would at times anger Him?
I’m not sure if I understand your answer. Are you saying in effect, that it’s impossible to “actually” anger God? If so, isn’t it also impossible to “actually” please God?God gave us free will. He loves us infinitely, and with the help of His grace we can love and obey Him.
God does not have human emotions; He has attributes…perfect love and justice.
The human writers of Sacred Scripture wrote in terms that humans can understand.
God’s perfect Love is directed towards our eternal happiness. He leaves us free to respond.
I don’t use the term anger because it is a human emotion. However, it is something that we humans understand clearly.I’m not sure if I understand your answer. Are you saying in effect, that it’s impossible to “actually” anger God? If so, isn’t it also impossible to “actually” please God?