M
Mark_of_Ephesus
Guest
Says who/what? In the cases I listed, there is no record of the pope working through a synod.I’m afraid you must, because none of these examples proves your point. The fact is:
(1) The Pope has always worked collegially or through synod in the deposition of bishops.
It seems that this claim of yours is based largely on speculation. With documents like Dictatus Papae (which still represented the mindset of the papacy) and Unam Sanctam, I don’t know who would have prohibited the pope from doing anything he so desired.(3) When Catholic sources state that “the Pope did this” or “the Pope did that,” most don’t realize that this merely means that the Pope either confirmed a prior decision of other authorities, initiated an action in synod, or initiated an action where collegial action was taken.
Please provide evidence to substantiate this claim.(4) During the Middle Ages, for about 400 years, the Pope could do nothing without the Colllege of bishops (during this time, the College that elected him required the Pope to sign a sort of pre-nup before taking office, to prevent unilateral abuses of power).
No, it is a valid criticism. Even if what you say is true, on what grounds does the pope have the final word in the process?Ok. Thanks for the explanation. But it’s obvious you misunderstand the Vatican machinery. Depositions are carried out only after an appeal has been made by OTHER AUTHORITIES and extensive investigation by authorities OTHER THAN THE POPE. The Pope makes his decisions based on the (name removed by moderator)ut of those OTHER AUTHORITIES. The deposition is a truly collegial action. That it does not happen in a formal synod is a poor criticism.
I am afraid it is still “at will”. By your own admission, “the pope makes a decision based on the (name removed by moderator)ut of other authorities.” Regardless of what other authorities suggest, it is ultimately the pope’s decision. The adviser cannot override the action of the advised.None of your examples demonstrates that the Pope removes bishops “at will.” Neither does he initiate a process of deposition, nor does he base a decision to depose on his unilateral will alone without the (name removed by moderator)ut of OTHER AUTHORITIES. Your whole position is a straw man, I’m afraid.
No, synodal action is not comparable - that was the function of the early Church.You have only cited instances of the Pope deposing Latin bishops. This is only as “bad” as the actions of the Patriarch of Antioch, or the actions of the Synod of Jerusalem stripping their former Patriarch of the episcopal diginity.
Even if you are correct, (that his powers are confined to the western church) the abuses are in no way justified. I will reassert that this argument has nothing to do with the discussion at hand.They are local actions relevant for a local Church. So you have no rational basis for fearmongering. The examples you gave, even if they prove your claim (and they do not), has no relevance for the relationship between the Western Church and the Eastern or Oriental Churches, for they are all merely examples of INTERNAL LATIN Church governance.
Actually, I have. You, however, assert [without evidence] that these depositions took place only through a synod’s authority.You have given no authoritative magisterial source that this is a “normative” power of the Pope, much less that such a “power” has actually been used in the history of the Latin Catholic Church.
In any event. I will be away from a computer until Monday evening. Just letting you know in case you don’t hear a timely response to your [presumable] next post. I will get back to you as soon as I can.