M
matthew1624
Guest
I’m currently reading Predestination by Fr. Reginald Garrigou-Lagrange and have come across something that I’m not understanding completely. Hopefully someone here can help.
Here is the text:
“This doctor has discussed predestination and God’s will to save all mankind in two of his works, and his teaching on this subject is substantially the same as St. Bonaventure’s. He states positively that divine knowledge is the cause of things, and is not measured by them. It does not, however, prescribe the characteristic trait of necessity for all things: for there may be, as Aristotle says, a necessity of consequence without a necessity of consequent, according to the following example given by Boethius: What I see must be; now I see Peter walking; therefore he must be walking, although he is doing this freely. Thus God has infallibly foreseen contingent events. In like manner, God willed efficaciously from all eternity the conversion of the good thief, and he was infallibly converted without being in the least way compelled.”
I have underlined the parts I’m not following. I’m particulary interested in how this relates to Jesus’ arrest being contingent on Judas’ betrayal. How can this be applied and understood in light of the above passage from St. Bonaventure?
God Bless…
Here is the text:
“This doctor has discussed predestination and God’s will to save all mankind in two of his works, and his teaching on this subject is substantially the same as St. Bonaventure’s. He states positively that divine knowledge is the cause of things, and is not measured by them. It does not, however, prescribe the characteristic trait of necessity for all things: for there may be, as Aristotle says, a necessity of consequence without a necessity of consequent, according to the following example given by Boethius: What I see must be; now I see Peter walking; therefore he must be walking, although he is doing this freely. Thus God has infallibly foreseen contingent events. In like manner, God willed efficaciously from all eternity the conversion of the good thief, and he was infallibly converted without being in the least way compelled.”
I have underlined the parts I’m not following. I’m particulary interested in how this relates to Jesus’ arrest being contingent on Judas’ betrayal. How can this be applied and understood in light of the above passage from St. Bonaventure?
God Bless…