itsjustdave1988:
the Calvinist interpretation of this view is that “all men” who are saved are ONLY those among the elect, right?
And that is almost certainly St. Thomas’s view here as well. “Saved” pretty clearly refers to final salvation, at least as Thomas is interpreting it.
Jesus did not share the grace of atonement with the reprobate. Is this St. Thomas view? No.
I never claimed that it was, although most Calvinists agree in some form with the medieval formula that Christ died sufficiently for all but efficiently for the elect. Furthermore, limited atonement is the most controversial point of “TULIP”–it is part of developed, orthodox Calvinism, but Calvin is silent on it and there is a minority position within Calvinism that rejects it.
However, both Thomas and Augustine held the Catholic view that Baptism truly saves.
This is a clever argument. I’m not convinced by it, because in the passage in question St. Thomas clearly seems to be speaking of final salvation. He contrasts “saved” with “damned” which makes me think he is speaking of final states. So though, as he says in Part 3 (a passage you quoted earlier) that baptism “contains the perfection of salvation,” when he here speaks of “being saved” it sounds to me as if he is speaking of those who are finally saved.
In my experience–which I don’t claim to be exhaustive–medieval theologians generally use the word “saved” in this sense, to speak of people who are finally saved as opposed to being finally damned.
If you look at this context, it is clear that both men refute the Calvinist view that “all men” who are “saved” are necessarily only those who are the elect.
I can’t see anything of the sort. I agree of course that both St. Thomas and St. Augustine think that some of the reprobate experience regeneration and later fall away, and this is the single most obvious difference between their position(s) and Calvinism. But the context doesn’t look to me as if it is speaking of “saved” as including all the “regenerate.” You are reading that into the text to avoid (what you yourself earlier admitted with regard to the first two responses) the appearance of a “Calvinist” interpretation. The same is true of the passage you cited from St. Augustine’s
De correptione et gratia 44. Note that he there speaks explicitly of the “all” who are saved as all those who are predestined, not all who are regenerate through baptism. I see no support for your interpretation, and a number of factors that point the other way.
In otherwords, the universality of saving grace includes even the reprobate, contrary to the Calvinist view of “all men.”
Even in your view, this “salvation” is not effectively offered to all, since many people have never been offered baptism. In the Thomist view as much as the Calvinist one, this fact is subject to God’s providence. So though baptism is implicitly offered to all, the fact is that many people never have the chance to be saved through baptism. But that’s probably another issue.
St. Thomas teaches explicitly that God gives grace to some, who He does not give the gift of perseverance.
I’m not disputing that. I have said over and over that I’m not maintaining that St. Thomas’s position is compatible with Calvinism. I’m maintaining that his interpretation of this particular passage is compatible with Calvinism. You have a legitimate point that the implications and nuances are different because his interpretation is in the context of a significantly different soteriology. But he makes the same exegetical “moves.” All three of his arguments–particularly the first two–could be taken up by Calvinists, and this is also true of the two arguments you cite from St. Augustine.
Is this congruent with the Calvinist interpretation that “all men” whom Jesus saves?
The point here turns on what St. Thomas means by “being saved.” I repeat–the context indicates strongly that he is speaking of final salvation.
However, the grace which only comes from Calvary is given to even the reprobate, according to St. Thomas, right?
That isn’t relevant here, because he isn’t speaking about the grace coming from Calvary being given to some of the reprobate. He is speaking of those who are saved as opposed to being damned–i.e., of final salvation. I entirely agree that he has a very different understanding from Calvinists of what happens on the way to that final state.
That’s one aspect of “free will” that Calvinist deny can happen, as for them all justifying grace is irresistible grace.
Again, true (in the sense that they don’t think a believer can act in such a way as to lose the gift of charity), but not relevant if (as I believe) St. Thomas is here speaking of *final *salvation.