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littlered123
Guest
I know the Catholic Church teaches premarital sex is a grave sin, yet it seems that there are contradictions in the Bible and I wonder if it was a big deal in the Church in the earlier centuries. I know that there was definitely premarital or extramarital sex in the Old Testament and I don’t remember God making a big deal out of it or calling out his people for it. Also, I have heard the word “fornication” mentioned in the New Testament as immoral, yet when I have read up on it, sources went back to the original Greek and Hebrew wording. The Greek wording is porneia which either means illicit sexual intercourse or worshiping idols. While illicit sexual intercourse could include fornication, it is not immediately clear and it could just refer to prostitution, incest, or homosexuality. It seems the Bible is not the best source to ‘prove’ that premarital sex is immoral.
I was also reading that marriage was not instituted as a sacrament within the Church until the 12th or 13th century. I heard it was common and accepted to follow the marriage customs of the time. Early Christians would have followed Greek or Roman or Jewish marriage customs, which often accepted premarital sex, at least after the engagement, as normal. I assume Early Christians were engaging in premarital relations and may not have seen it as sinful. Early Church Fathers touched upon the matter, but mostly because they were exalting celibacy and virginity, and almost saying all sex was impure. For example, St. Augustine believed most sex was at least a venial sin, even within marriage. It is confusing, especially since reading people believe somehow your marriage isn’t valid if not a sacramental marriage, when for more than 10 centuries after Jesus, marriages were not sacramental, and yet were considered to be valid. It also seems even early Christians may have accepted premarital sex, so why is it such a big deal and considered such a grave sin today? It seems that those ideas come from theologians or leaders who viewed sex in a negative light
I was also reading that marriage was not instituted as a sacrament within the Church until the 12th or 13th century. I heard it was common and accepted to follow the marriage customs of the time. Early Christians would have followed Greek or Roman or Jewish marriage customs, which often accepted premarital sex, at least after the engagement, as normal. I assume Early Christians were engaging in premarital relations and may not have seen it as sinful. Early Church Fathers touched upon the matter, but mostly because they were exalting celibacy and virginity, and almost saying all sex was impure. For example, St. Augustine believed most sex was at least a venial sin, even within marriage. It is confusing, especially since reading people believe somehow your marriage isn’t valid if not a sacramental marriage, when for more than 10 centuries after Jesus, marriages were not sacramental, and yet were considered to be valid. It also seems even early Christians may have accepted premarital sex, so why is it such a big deal and considered such a grave sin today? It seems that those ideas come from theologians or leaders who viewed sex in a negative light