Proper translation of Genesis 1:25-26

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Des

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Ok, I came accross someone who said this about Genisis.

**Genesis 1:25-26 reads in Hebrew as - { 'elohiym 'asah chay 'erets miyn b’hemah miyn remes 'adamah miyn 'elohiym ra’ah towb. 'elohiym 'amar asah 'adam tselem d'muwth radah dagah yam owph shamayim b’hemah 'erets remes ramas 'erets. } **

Where the hebrew tense of “'asah” is the same in verse 25 with the english translation of “made” as it is in the verse 26 use of “'asah” which has an english translation of “make”. Essentially, in hebrew… it was “made” both times, but human translators preferred to use a narrative tone for verse 26 as if God was speaking “let us make” as opposed to a 3rd person objective manner in which the whole passage reads originally in hebrew.

Is this correct about the word “asah” used in both verses?
Does anyone out there know their hebrew?
 
Here are the verses from the LXX (translated from the Hebrew by Jews for Jews)

25 êáὶ ἐðïίçóåí ὁ èåὸò ôὰ èçñίá ôῆò ãῆò êáôὰ ãέíïò êáὶ ôὰ êôήíç êáôὰ ãέíïò êáὶ ðάíôá ôὰ ἑñðåôὰ ôῆò ãῆò êáôὰ ãέíïò áὐôῶí êáὶ åἶäåí ὁ èåὸò ὅôé êáëά
26 êáὶ åἶðåí ὁ èåόò ðïéήóùìåí ἄíèñùðïí êáô’ åἰêόíá ἡìåôέñáí êáὶ êáè’ ὁìïίùóéí êáὶ ἀñ÷έôùóáí ôῶí ἰ÷èύùí ôῆò èáëάóóçò êáὶ ôῶí ðåôåéíῶí ôïῦ ïὐñáíïῦ êáὶ ôῶí êôçíῶí êáὶ ðάóçò ôῆò ãῆò êáὶ ðάíôùí ôῶí ἑñðåôῶí ôῶí ἑñðόíôùí ἐðὶ ôῆò ãῆò

Brenton’s translation

25 And God made the wild beasts of the earth according to their kind, and cattle according to their kind, and all the reptiles of the earth according to their kind, and God saw that they were good.
26 And God said, Let us make man according to our image and likeness, and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the flying creatures of heaven, and over the cattle and all the earth, and over all the reptiles that creep on the earth.
 
So then human translators didn’t change the tone of the verse from made to make?

Does this also mean that the Hebrew word “'asah” also didn’t appear both times in the two verses?
 
I am by no means a language or scripture scholar but I would like to ask those who can and do resort to study of the ancient languages to understand the meaning of scripture:
do you also know definitively that the connotations of words and phrases you analyze have remained unchanged since they were written down by the scribes? do you also know the Jewish oral tradition, which preserved the Revelation and from which the written form emerged, which interepreted these verses? Do you know the thought processes of the translators and whether or not they were guided by the Holy Spirit, i.e. working under the authority of the Church in making their translations?
 
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