J
josea
Guest
In other thread I have already asked this question without getting a clear answer but I think it is worth a new one.
One can not try to achieve a superior good using evil means. (it is not licit to do evil that good may come of it (cf Rom 3:8))
According to the Church teaching, mutilation is intrinsically evil. Now, if this is so and if you read **Mark *Chapter 9, it seems to me that Jesus recommends ***to do an “intrinsic evil” act (please, I do not intend being blasphemous), even if it is in a figurative manner, in order to achieve a superior good or to avoid a “worse evil” as a sin. In this case mutilation, according to Jesus, should not be considered “intrinsically evil”. I do not thing Jesus could have made such a speech if this wouldn’t be OK. Was Jesus a proportionalist?
How is that possible?
Regards,
Jose
One can not try to achieve a superior good using evil means. (it is not licit to do evil that good may come of it (cf Rom 3:8))
According to the Church teaching, mutilation is intrinsically evil. Now, if this is so and if you read **Mark *Chapter 9, it seems to me that Jesus recommends ***to do an “intrinsic evil” act (please, I do not intend being blasphemous), even if it is in a figurative manner, in order to achieve a superior good or to avoid a “worse evil” as a sin. In this case mutilation, according to Jesus, should not be considered “intrinsically evil”. I do not thing Jesus could have made such a speech if this wouldn’t be OK. Was Jesus a proportionalist?
How is that possible?
Regards,
Jose