Protestant Bias in the NIV

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One of the better protestant bibles I like is the one my protestant brother uses. He likes the ESV (English Standard Version). That version is close to the NAB and the RSV-CE/2CE. I don’t think I’ve found any Protestant bias in the ESV bible.
There are some renderings that may indicate a Protestant slant. "Whatever you bind on earth would already have been bound in heaven, whatever you loose on earth would already have been loosed in heaven. Matt 16:18ff; 18:18ff; also John 20:21-23: forgive/retain…forgive/retain.

Protestant bias or not, this rendering of the perfect tense of “bind” and “loose” (in heaven) is not considerate of the indefinite relative clause they are found in, meaning the binding/loosing in heaven is dependent on the accomplishment of the binding/loosing on earth. Same goes for John 20:21-23’s forgiving/retaining of sins.

Even if we’re to forgive Protestant bias, it’s still bad Greek.
 
The NIV shows the translator’s distaste for WORKS based salvation also. It translates the word “works” as “deeds” instead. Here are some passages from the NIV, the Epistle of James chapter 2
14 What good is it, my brothers, if a man claims to have faith but has no deeds? Can such faith save him?
15 Suppose a brother or sister is without clothes and daily food.
16 If one of you says to him, “Go, I wish you well; keep warm and well fed,” but does nothing about his physical needs, what good is it?
17 In the same way, faith by itself, if it is not accompanied by action, is dead.
18 But someone will say, “You have faith; I have deeds.” Show me your faith without deeds, and I will show you my faith by what I do.
 
There are some renderings that may indicate a Protestant slant. "Whatever you bind on earth would already have been bound in heaven, whatever you loose on earth would already have been loosed in heaven. Matt 16:18ff; 18:18ff;
:confused: That’s not in my ESV bible. And it’s not here either.
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porthos11:
also John 20:21-23: forgive/retain…forgive/retain.
John 20:21-23 ESV I don’t see it here either. Although I’m not sure what you mean about this one.
 
I didn’t see if it was mentioned, but the NIV repeated inserts the word “declared” before “righteous” in the Book of Romans (and probably elsewhere). The Greek does have a word for “declared” or “imputed,” but it several of these texts. Clearly, the translators have made up their minds as to what constitutes being justified or righteous and have used it to color their translation.

www.HandsOnApologetics.com
 
:confused: That’s not in my ESV bible. And it’s not here either.

John 20:21-23 ESV I don’t see it here either. Although I’m not sure what you mean about this one.
Ayayay… so sorry. That was the NASB not the ESV.

The ESV’s, er, “difference” is in 1 Tim 3:15 where the Church is “a” pillar and foundation of truth rather than “the” pillar and foundation of truth.
 
Ayayay… so sorry. That was the NASB not the ESV.

The ESV’s, er, “difference” is in 1 Tim 3:15 where the Church is “a” pillar and foundation of truth rather than “the” pillar and foundation of truth.
Oooh big differences in the meaning of thsoe verses if one uses the NASB in the binding and loosing passage in Matthew and now the ESV obvious slant here.
I think the best protestant translation sad to say was the old King James Version. It had some slant as well but not nearly as bad as some of these modern evangelical versions. Too bad it was a lot easier doing Biblical apologetics when most protestants used one version the KJV now that they use different transaltions saying different things it makes it all that much tougher to make a point. The only protestant translation I would consider owning it the KJV with the old apocrapha of course. Its probably better translated than some of the Catholic Versions we have nowadays anyway and doesn’t have the probelem of being gender neutral like the NAB they sell us in the bookstores.
 
You can read the explanation by the NIV translators here:

ibs.org/niv/balance5.php

2 Thessalonians 2:15

If the Greek word paradosis means “tradition” (see NIV footnote alternative), why wasn’t the plural translated “traditions” here instead of “teachings”? After all, paradosis was rendered “tradition” in Matthew 15:2. When paradosis was used in a positive way to refer to the passing on of apostolic teachings, we did not want the reader to think of “the tradition of the elders” (Matt. 15:2) or of traditions in general, but of apostolic teachings in particular. So when we believed that reference was to the latter, we usually rendered the term as “teachings” to make that meaning clear to readers. All words must be contextually nuanced. By providing a footnote alternative (“tradition” or “traditions”), we are telling the reader that in those instances we believe that what is being “handed down” is the apostolic “teachings.”
Months ago, some friends and I had the NIV “teachings vs traditions” issue come up in a nondem study. I got some really good answers here on the forum, but we all played gently in the study, and just moved through that issue.

However***, after seeing the NIV translators’ reasons for avoiding the word “traditions” in a positive sense (as found in 1 Cor 11:2, 2 Thess 2:15, 2 Thess 3:6) somebody needs to speak up! Call them on the carpet for this… it’s not an unimportant issue! They are playing with the Word of God, and I suspect they know it!

Can you imagine the outcry If we Catholics followed the same line of logic and reason that NIV translators did? We could just as easily have changed Mark 7 and Matt 15 to read “why do you break the commandment of God for your teachings?” Of course, to keep anyone from screaming too loudly, we could always footnote those Gospel passages: “… or traditions.” There, that fixes it.

And then we could explain that, although the same Greek word “paradosis” is used both positively and negatively in the NT, we did not want the reader to equate the negative traditions here in the Gospels with the Holy Traditions handed on by the Apostles. Therefore, we feel it is more accurate to render paradosis as “teachings” when used in a negative sense." …or some similar lame excuse.

This would be a tragic mistranslation, of course. But the NIV is also a tragic mistranslation. When I found out they don’t even have qualms about it, I just got upset… sorry.

If we want see a modern day “tradition of men”, we need look no further than the belief that “all Tradition is bad!”

You guys know Greek, I don’t know it that well. But I *have *sensed that when the Greek language has two different words, one for teachings and another for traditions, they are NOT the same in every respect. They are just not. To substitute one for the other is a tragedy.

And lastly, just a personal insight by me, I would say traditions are a more encompassing term than teachings, that teachings might even be a subset of traditions. Cases in point of “Traditions” might be infant baptism or Sunday worship, for example. These are more examples of what you do, rather than just what you believe.

Sorry to bring up an older thread, but somebody more authoritative than me needs to press the NIV translators into an apology, for God’s sake and ours!

God Bless Us All!
 
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