Protestant man-made words or doctrines

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Anima Christi:
The “age of accountability” is unbiblical. It’s part of Tradition and is found nowhere in the Bible . . . the difference is that Catholics accept both Scripture and Tradition while Protestants claim to accept only Scripture; it’s therefore inconsistent for them to believe in an age of accountability.
By "unbiblical" do you mean

“contrary to Scripture”

or do you mean

“not found in the Bible” ?

Most people take that term, **“unbiblical” **to mean “contrary to Scripture” and many pains are taken in Catholic apologetics to show that your beliefs and doctrines are not unbiblical.

While the details of some “age of accountability” may not be set forth in Scripture, the basics of it are there. Protestants do different things with it, based partly upon their understanding of original sin.

Sola Scriptura recognizes that man is given an intellect, and by the using his intellect under the guidance of the Holy Spirit, can come to conclusions based upon things contained in Scripture. In fact, it realizes that the Holy Spirit led people to overwhemingly see which books were “Scripture.” The OT Church is not viewed as “infallible” so neither is the NT Church, in the Sola Scriptura view. An infallible Church is not necessary for an infallible canon. Sola Scriptura affirms, basically, to quote the WMCoF, that man can know God’s truth based on things “either expressly set down in Scripture, or by good and necessary consequence may be deduced from Scripture.”

The Church, according to Sola Scriptura, can be fallible, but not everything it does or decides is therefore necessarily in error.

There was NO statement by the Church, at least that I’ve come across in my reading, until Trent, or possibly Council of Florence 100 years earlier, that would be considered infallible today addressing the Canon. Innocent I’s statement, in Denz. #96, and local synods in Hippo and Carthage in the 4th/5th centuries, would they be considered infallible?? Not today they wouldn’t. If anyone knows of something before Florence, please say, but **I’m trying to say that the Protestant view of Sola Scriptura fits quiet well with how the Church functioned alongside Scripture **for 1500 years, until the Reformation. Obviously, not all the same beliefs, but Scripture was settled, except for perhaps a few pockets of resistance.

**I’m not saying the Church was Protestant or believed “sola Scriptura” for 1500 years. ** I’m saying, that Protestants go on with the Scriptures (w/o the Deuterocanonicals, but there’s more than circumstantial reasons for that) as they were received for many centuries. Reformed Churches take very seriously the teaching of the Fathers. Just look, the Trinity, the Incarnation, the Virgin birth, the Holy Spirit proceeding from the Father and Son, that’s all believed. And for Biblical reasons, other things Catholics believe are rejected.
 
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Tom:
I’d like to thank Vincent at Bob for their warm and honest answers. We certainly don’t agree on everything the “others” do, so rather than highlighting the differences why not embrace the similarities…
I do pray for our separated brethren because they have denied themselves of some of the most beautiful and fulfilling Sacraments instituted by our “shared” Lord and savior, Jesus the Christ (I’m sorry I couldn’t resist…) Let’s pray that we shall again become one body in Christ, one Church as was intended.
Yeah, thanks Tom. My last post was not meant to be argumentative, I’m just wanting to show that Protestants are capable of reasoning through some things Catholics claim is illogical. Right or wrong, reasons can be given!🙂
 
Reformed Rob:
There was NO statement by the Church, at least that I’ve come across in my reading, until Trent, or possibly Council of Florence 100 years earlier, that would be considered infallible today addressing the Canon. Innocent I’s statement, in Denz. #96, and local synods in Hippo and Carthage in the 4th/5th centuries, would they be considered infallible?? Not today they wouldn’t. If anyone knows of something before Florence, please say,
I suppose you could say that the Ordinary Magesterium is authoratative, maybe even infallible. That seems reasonable. I seem to remember coming across something like that.

Although the individual bishops do not enjoy the prerogative of infallibility, they nevertheless proclaim Christ’s doctrine infallibly whenever, even though dispersed through the world, but still maintaining the bond of communion among themselves and with the successor of Peter, and authentically teaching matters of faith and morals, they are in agreement on one position as definitively to be held.(40*) This is even more clearly verified when, gathered together in an ecumenical council, they are teachers and judges of faith and morals for the universal Church, whose definitions must be adhered to with the submission of faith.(41*)

If you said that, then it could perhaps be demonstrated that those local councils and P. Innocent I were setting forth what the whole Church believed in regard to the Canon.

Now I’m arguing with myself :whacky:
 
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