F
Florida123
Guest
Why was psalm 42 the Prayers At The Foot Of the Altar removed in the OF form as well as the Last Gospel the first chapter of the book of John the Evangelist?
As Claire said, mostly because they were accretions to the Mass, things that began as private devotions (whether of priest or people) before or after the Mass and which ended up being officially attached to the Missal.Why was psalm 42 the Prayers At The Foot Of the Altar removed in the OF form as well as the Last Gospel the first chapter of the book of John the Evangelist?
Actually they were removed in 1965 before the new Mass for the reasons stated above. It also made serving easier as many altar boys were starting to struggle with the Psalm 42 responses. (I know because my younger brother was one of them.Why was psalm 42 the Prayers At The Foot Of the Altar removed in the OF form as well as the Last Gospel the first chapter of the book of John the Evangelist?
I notice in many EF parishes today that the altar boys don’t struggle with Psalm 42. How come they were struggling?Actually they were removed in 1965 before the new Mass for the reasons stated above. It also made serving easier as many altar boys were starting to struggle with the Psalm 42 responses. (I know because my younger brother was one of them.)
However, what was more noticed back then was the replacement of the old communion formula: Corpus Domini nostri Jesu Christi custodiat animam tuam in vitam aeternam. Amen. (May the Body of our Lord Jesus Christ keep your soul unto life everlasting. Amen.)
If I had to guess, I’d say it’s because altar boys who assist at the E.F. Mass today do so because they sincerely want to, and are making the effort to learn and understand the responses. 50+ years ago, that wasn’t necessarily the case!I notice in many EF parishes today that the altar boys don’t struggle with Psalm 42. How come they were struggling?
SACRED CONGREGATION OF RITES, Decree Quo actuosius, promulgating a new formulary for the distribution of communion, 25 April 1964: AAS 56 (1964) 337-338.And why was the communion formula changed?
I would agree with you there. It brings the reception more in line with the “He who eats my flesh … has everlasting life” verse in John 6:55, which is the whole point of communion in the first place.From my point of view, the previous form could have been adjusted only slightly to facilitate the active participation (which here apparently means saying something aloud) of the faithful:
Priest: Hoc Corpus Dómini nostri Jesu Christi custódiat ánimam tuam in vitam aetérnam.
Communicant: Amen.
Well, some liturgists try to downplay that, and emphasize that “Corpus Christi” also refers to us. Now, it’s true that the Church is the Body of Christ, and in Holy Communion our Lord feeds His Body with His Body, but our identity as the Body of Christ should not cloud our vision to the extraordinary presence of our Lord in the Eucharist.While I can follow the argument laid out that “Corpus Christi” more obviously refers to Jesus in THIS EUCHARIST right here…
I agree completely!I think something is lost when we go from a prayer [of blessing] … to a simple statement of fact