Larry B:
Someone close to me has been devouring KJV info as of late. He is a long time ago fallen away Catholic.
In this passage, the mother would appear to be Mary as these verses deal with messianic prophecy of Jesus. The verse alludes to the “sons of my mother” (Douay). This friend of mine tells me that this proves that Mary had other sons.
How would I respond to this?
In isolation, this Scripture passage from Psalm 69 (RSV) might be misunderstood that way but, since we know from Apostolic Tradition that Mary had no other children, this must be a reference to a more remote female ancestor, such as Abraham’s wife, Sarah, as elsewhere in Isaiah 51:2 the LORD refers to Abraham as the father of the Israelites and Sarah, his wife, as the mother of the Israelites, “Sarah, who gave you birth.” And so, the “sons” of the psalm refer to more distant relations and probably meant all the children of Israel.
Consider another Messianic passage:
10"And I will pour out on the house of David and the inhabitants of Jerusalem a spirit of compassion and supplication, so that, when they look on him whom they have pierced, they shall mourn for him, as one mourns for an only child, and weep bitterly over him, as one weeps over a first-born. (Zechariah 12:10)
Since Jesus, “him whom they have pierced,” was truly Mary’s “first-born” (Luke 2:7), does this Messianic passage not support the idea that Jesus was also truly Mary’s “only child” ?