J
jlancey
Guest
Dear Catholic Answers Staff Apologists:
As a would-be philosopher-apologist (and 1st year PhD candidate at Notre Dame), I’m hoping to seek some direction from my apologetical colleagues:
While, on the whole, I am quite happy with the new Compendium of the CCC, Question 18 of said text at least appears to teach (in its English, French and Italian forms) the doctrine of “limited inerrancy” of Scripture. Now, please note: this problem (if it be a true problem) represents a new development within things magisterial; neither the CCC nor Dei Verbum may be charged with posing the same difficulty. As regards the total absence of any error whatsoever in the Sacred Texts, both Dei Verbum and the Catechism, while ambiguous, can be interpreted in an orthodox fashion (*a la *Leo XIII’s Providentissimus Deus).
Indeed, Pope Leo’s encyclical letter was only recently cited by the CDF in the 1998 document "Illustrative Note on the Concluding Formula of the Professio Fidei” wherein “absence of [unqualified] error” within the Sacred Texts is affirmed to be a truth of both Divine and Catholic faith. Leo XIII, in the precise passage footnoted in the CDF document, affirms said total absence of error in Scripture (when, of course, properly interpreted – using, say,Father Most’s method of fleshing out this issue).
Question 18 of the Compendium, on the other hand, seems (to me, at least) to veer perilously close in coming squarely down in favor of the limited inerrancy interpretation of Dei Verbum’s and, hence, the CCC’s regarding Sacred Scripture. (Just as a reminder to everyone: the issue of interpretation of the original Vatican II document and, derivatively, the CCC centers on how exactly to interpret the “for the sake of our salvation” clause. The standard orthodox interpretation of the relevant passage views said passage as a description of what the purpose (the end, the telos) of Scripture is – and not (according to the standard unorthodox interpretation) as a clause restricting the sense in which the Scriptures are to be considered inerrant. In contrast, Question 18 of the Compendium at least appears (in my all too fallible, corrigible opinion) to interpret Dei Verbum and the Catechism in this latter sense.)
Now, just to be as clear as possible, the apparently conflicting passages are as follows:
The relevant portion of Question 18 of the Compendium reads (in English, but not, so I have been assured, in a substantially different fashion in the French or Italian):
“For this reason [Scripture] is said to be inspired and to teach without error those truths that are necessary for our salvation.” [Are we to assume, then, that error may indeed creep in with respect to those things taught in Scripture that are *not necessary for our salvation?]
The preceding seems at odds with the relevant portion of DS 3293 (taken from Leo XIII’s Providentissimus Deus), cited by the CDF in 1998, which reads:
“It is futile to argue that the Holy Spirit took men as his instruments in writing, implying that some error could slip in…” (Emphasis added)
My question, therefore, is this: is my concern much ado about nothing, or is something more substantial taking place – something, that, nevertheless, may be brought into further (hopefully clarifying) relief?
Thank you for your help and God bless you,
Jeremy J Lancey
University of Notre Dame
As a would-be philosopher-apologist (and 1st year PhD candidate at Notre Dame), I’m hoping to seek some direction from my apologetical colleagues:
While, on the whole, I am quite happy with the new Compendium of the CCC, Question 18 of said text at least appears to teach (in its English, French and Italian forms) the doctrine of “limited inerrancy” of Scripture. Now, please note: this problem (if it be a true problem) represents a new development within things magisterial; neither the CCC nor Dei Verbum may be charged with posing the same difficulty. As regards the total absence of any error whatsoever in the Sacred Texts, both Dei Verbum and the Catechism, while ambiguous, can be interpreted in an orthodox fashion (*a la *Leo XIII’s Providentissimus Deus).
Indeed, Pope Leo’s encyclical letter was only recently cited by the CDF in the 1998 document "Illustrative Note on the Concluding Formula of the Professio Fidei” wherein “absence of [unqualified] error” within the Sacred Texts is affirmed to be a truth of both Divine and Catholic faith. Leo XIII, in the precise passage footnoted in the CDF document, affirms said total absence of error in Scripture (when, of course, properly interpreted – using, say,Father Most’s method of fleshing out this issue).
Question 18 of the Compendium, on the other hand, seems (to me, at least) to veer perilously close in coming squarely down in favor of the limited inerrancy interpretation of Dei Verbum’s and, hence, the CCC’s regarding Sacred Scripture. (Just as a reminder to everyone: the issue of interpretation of the original Vatican II document and, derivatively, the CCC centers on how exactly to interpret the “for the sake of our salvation” clause. The standard orthodox interpretation of the relevant passage views said passage as a description of what the purpose (the end, the telos) of Scripture is – and not (according to the standard unorthodox interpretation) as a clause restricting the sense in which the Scriptures are to be considered inerrant. In contrast, Question 18 of the Compendium at least appears (in my all too fallible, corrigible opinion) to interpret Dei Verbum and the Catechism in this latter sense.)
Now, just to be as clear as possible, the apparently conflicting passages are as follows:
The relevant portion of Question 18 of the Compendium reads (in English, but not, so I have been assured, in a substantially different fashion in the French or Italian):
“For this reason [Scripture] is said to be inspired and to teach without error those truths that are necessary for our salvation.” [Are we to assume, then, that error may indeed creep in with respect to those things taught in Scripture that are *not necessary for our salvation?]
The preceding seems at odds with the relevant portion of DS 3293 (taken from Leo XIII’s Providentissimus Deus), cited by the CDF in 1998, which reads:
“It is futile to argue that the Holy Spirit took men as his instruments in writing, implying that some error could slip in…” (Emphasis added)
My question, therefore, is this: is my concern much ado about nothing, or is something more substantial taking place – something, that, nevertheless, may be brought into further (hopefully clarifying) relief?
Thank you for your help and God bless you,
Jeremy J Lancey
University of Notre Dame