Question about Marital Relations

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bethkay

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When in confession, a priest basically told my husband it was ok to bring a wife to climax on days they could not have sex due to fertility. But of course not the man because he cannot “spill his seed”.

Is this true? Can a wife be brought to orgasm by her husband even when it is not the “safe time” to have sex?
 
Any kind of sexual act should uphold the dignity of its God-given purpose. That is, for the purposes of procreation and unification. If neither are present, it is a disordered act.
 
prstoessel said:
Any kind of sexual act should uphold the dignity of its God-given purpose. That is, for the purposes of procreation and unification. If neither are present, it is a disordered act.
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This is my thinking, as well. Even though two people are involved, this is essentially masturbation, which denies the procreative purpose of sex and is therefore sinful.
 
My husband is correcting me. He said the priest said that all foreplay is ok short of ejacultion for the man and that that is not an issue for a woman.
 
bethkay said:
My husband is correcting me. He said the priest said that all foreplay is ok short of ejacultion for the man and that that is not an issue for a woman.
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That’s not quite true. There is nothing wrong with some marital acts of love and affections but if there is absolutely a knowledge that the couple does not intend to proceed on to intercourse they should not go so far as has been described. Foreplay is preparation for intercourse .

Get some books on this subject.

Sex Au Naturel by Patric Coffin( I am probably spelling that wrong but they sell it at CA.)

Holy Sex by Popcak

Not for nothing but why would a woman want her husband to take her all the way when they know he won’t? Not my understanding of a unifying act.
 
Read Good News About Sex & Marriage by Christopher West. This explains the answers in much better form that what you’ll likely receive here.

Foreplay, by definition, is something that leads to intercourse. If there is no intent to have intercourse, then foreplay is to be avoided.
 
bethkay said:
When in confession, a priest basically told my husband it was ok to bring a wife to climax on days they could not have sex due to fertility. But of course not the man because he cannot “spill his seed”.

Is this true? Can a wife be brought to orgasm by her husband even when it is not the “safe time” to have sex?
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No. Such is a grave matter for mortal sin.
 
He was prob meaning that during foreplay (that is the right before intercourse) the climax of the wife can happen…that it did not have to be “during” the “act of intercourse”…(but can not happen outside of the marital act …that is apart from marital relations)
 
I have a question to regarding this topic. I understand what has to be present for mortal sin to occur. My question is this. If a married couple are engaging in foreplay leading up to normal sexual relations, the husband ejaculates outside of his wife unintentionally, meaning he has every intention of climaxing inside his wife because they desperately want another child…what if he tried to stop it from happening, but he could not. Is this sinful at all…venial or mortal?
 
Magnavox said:
I have a question to regarding this topic. I understand what has to be present for mortal sin to occur. My question is this. If a married couple are engaging in foreplay leading up to normal sexual relations, the husband ejaculates outside of his wife unintentionally, meaning he has every intention of climaxing inside his wife because they desperately want another child…what if he tried to stop it from happening, but he could not. Is this sinful at all…venial or mortal?
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There is no sin iin this circumstance.
 
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